SUBELEMENT G1 -- COMMISSION'S RULES [6 Exam Questions -- 6
Groups]
G1A General control operator frequency privileges
G1A01 (C) [97.301d]
What are the frequency privileges for a General Class
control operator in the 160-meter band (ITU Region 2)?
A. 1800 - 1900-kHz
B. 1900 - 2000-kHz
C. 1800 - 2000-kHz
D. 1825 - 2000-kHz
G1A02 (A) [97.301d]
What are the frequency privileges for a General Class
control operator in the 75/80-meter band (ITU Region 2)?
A. 3525 - 3750-kHz and 3850 - 4000-kHz
B. 3525 - 3775-kHz and 3875 - 4000-kHz
C. 3525 - 3750-kHz and 3875 - 4000-kHz
D. 3525 - 3775-kHz and 3850 - 4000-kHz
G1A03 (D) [97.301d]
What are the frequency privileges for a General Class
control operator in the 40-meter band (ITU Region 2)?
A. 7025 - 7175-kHz and 7200 - 7300-kHz
B. 7025 - 7175-kHz and 7225 - 7300-kHz
C. 7025 - 7150-kHz and 7200 - 7300-kHz
D. 7025 - 7150-kHz and 7225 - 7300-kHz
G1A04 (A) [97.301d]
What are the frequency privileges for a General Class
control operator in the 30-meter band?
A. 10100 - 10150-kHz
B. 10100 - 10175-kHz
C. 10125 - 10150-kHz
D. 10125 - 10175-kHz
G1A05 (B) [97.301d]
What are the frequency privileges for a General Class
control operator in the 20-meter band?
A. 14025 - 14100-kHz and 14175 - 14350-kHz
B. 14025 - 14150-kHz and 14225 - 14350-kHz
C. 14025 - 14125-kHz and 14200 - 14350-kHz
D. 14025 - 14175-kHz and 14250 - 14350-kHz
G1A06 (D) [97.301d]
What are the frequency privileges for a General Class
control operator in the 15-meter band?
A. 21025 - 21200-kHz and 21275 - 21450-kHz
B. 21025 - 21150-kHz and 21300 - 21450-kHz
C. 21025 - 21150-kHz and 21275 - 21450-kHz
D. 21025 - 21200-kHz and 21300 - 21450-kHz
G1A07 (B) [97.301d]
What are the frequency privileges for a General Class
control operator in the 12-meter band?
A. 24890 - 24975-kHz
B. 24890 - 24990-kHz
C. 24900 - 24990-kHz
D. 24900 - 24975-kHz
G1A08 (A) [97.301d]
What are the frequency privileges for a General Class
control operator in the 10-meter band?
A. 28000 - 29700-kHz
B. 28025 - 29700-kHz
C. 28100 - 29600-kHz
D. 28125 - 29600-kHz
G1A09 (D) [97.301d]
What are the frequency privileges for a General Class
control operator in the 17-meter band?
A. 18068 - 18300-kHz
B. 18025 - 18200-kHz
C. 18100 - 18200-kHz
D. 18068 - 18168-kHz
G1A10 (C) [97.305a]
What are the frequency segments for General class licensees
within the 75/80-meter band in ITU Region 2 for CW
emissions?
A. 3500 - 3750 kHz and 3800 - 4000 kHz
B. 3700 - 3750 kHz and 3850 - 4000 kHz
C. 3525 - 3750 kHz and 3850 - 4000 kHz
D. 3525 - 4000 kHz
G1A11 (C) [97.305c]
What are the frequency segments within the 10-meter band
for phone emissions?
A. 28000 - 28300 kHz
B. 29000 - 29700 kHz
C. 28300 - 29700 kHz
D. 28000 - 29000 kHz
G1B Antenna structure limitations; good engineering and
good amateur practice; beacon operation; restricted
operation; retransmitting radio signals
G1B01 (C) [97.15a]
Provided it is not at or near a public-use airport, what is
the maximum height above ground an antenna structure may
rise without requiring its owner to notify the FAA and
register with the FCC?
A. 50 feet
B. 100 feet
C. 200 feet
D. 300 feet
G1B02 (B) [97.101a]
If the FCC Rules DO NOT specifically cover a situation, how
must you operate your amateur station?
A. In accordance with standard licensee operator
principles
B. In accordance with good engineering and good amateur
practice
C. In accordance with station operating practices adopted
by the VECs
D. In accordance with procedures set forth by the
International Amateur Radio Union
G1B03 (B) [97.203g]
Which of the following types of stations may transmit only
one-way communications?
A. Repeater station
B. Beacon station
C. HF station
D. VHF station
G1B04 (A) [97.113b]
Which of the following does NOT need to be true when an
amateur station is being used to gather news information
for broadcast purposes?
A. The information is more quickly transmitted by Amateur
Radio
B. The information must involve the immediate safety of
life of individuals or the immediate protection of property
C. The information must be directly related to the event
D. The information cannot be transmitted by other means
G1B05 (D) [97.113e]
Under what limited circumstances may music be transmitted
by an amateur station?
A. When it produces no dissonances or spurious emissions
B. When it is used to jam an illegal transmission
C. When it is transmitted on frequencies above 1215 MHz
D. When it is an incidental part of a space shuttle
retransmission
G1B06 (C) [97.113a4]
When may an amateur station in two-way communication
transmit a message in a secret code in order to obscure the
meaning of the communication?
A. When transmitting above 450 MHz
B. During contests
C. Never
D. During a declared communications emergency
G1B07 (B) [97.113a4]
What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or
procedural signals in the amateur service?
A. Only "Q" codes are permitted
B. They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of
a message
C. They are not permitted because they obscure the
meaning of a message to FCC monitoring stations
D. Only "10-codes" are permitted
G1B08 (D) [97.113a4, 97.113e]
Which of the following amateur station transmissions is NOT
prohibited by the FCC Rules?
A. The playing of music
B. The use of obscene or indecent words
C. False or deceptive messages or signals
D. Retransmission of space shuttle communications
G1B09 (C) [97.113a4, 97.113e]
What should you do to prevent your station from
retransmitting music or signals from a non-amateur station?
A. Turn up the volume of your transceiver
B. Speak closer to the microphone to increase your signal
strength
C. Turn down the volume of background audio
D. Adjust your transceiver noise blanker
G1B10 (A) [97.203]
Which of the following is NOT an FCC requirement regarding
beacon stations?
A. All transmissions must use audio frequency shift
keying (AFSK)
B. Only one signal per band is permitted from a given
location
C. The transmitter power of the beacon station must not
exceed 100 watts
D. The control operator of the beacon station must hold a
Technician, Technician Plus, General, Advanced or Extra
Class operator license
G1C Transmitter power standards; certification of external
RF- power-amplifiers; standards for certification of
external RF-power amplifiers; HF data emission standards
G1C01 (A) [97.313c1]
What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station
may use on 3690 kHz?
A. 200 watts PEP output
B. 1000 watts PEP output
C. 1500 watts PEP output
D. The minimum power necessary to carry out the desired
communications, with a maximum of 2000 watts PEP output
G1C02 (C) [97.313a,b]
What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station
may use on 7080 kHz?
A. 200 watts PEP output
B. 1000 watts PEP output
C. 1500 watts PEP output
D. 2000 watts PEP output
G1C03 (A) [97.313c1]
What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station
may use on 10.140 MHz?
A. 200 watts PEP output
B. 1000 watts PEP output
C. 1500 watts PEP output
D. 2000 watts PEP output
G1C04 (B) [97.313c1]
What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station
may use on 21.305 MHz?
A. The minimum power necessary to carry out the desired
communications, with a maximum of 200 watts PEP output
B. The minimum power necessary to carry out the desired
communications, with a maximum of 1500 watts PEP output
C. 1000 watts PEP output
D. 2000 watts PEP output
G1C05 (C) [97.313a,b]
What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station
may use on 24.950 MHz?
A. 200 watts PEP output
B. 1000 watts PEP output
C. 1500 watts PEP output
D. 2000 watts PEP output
G1C06 (B) [97.313]
What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station
may use on 7255 kHz?
A. The minimum power necessary to carry out the desired
communications, with a maximum of 200 watts PEP output
B. The minimum power necessary to carry out the desired
communications, with a maximum of 1500 watts PEP output
C. 1000 watts PEP output
D. 2000 watts PEP output
G1C07 (A) [97.313]
What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station
may use on 14.300 MHz?
A. The minimum power necessary to carry out the desired
communications, with a maximum of 1500 watts PEP output
B. 200 watts PEP output
C. 1000 watts PEP output
D. 2000 watts PEP output
G1C08 (C) [97.313]
What is the maximum transmitting power a station with a
General Class control operator may use on 28.400 MHz?
A. The minimum power necessary to carry out the desired
communications, with a maximum of 200 watts PEP output
B. The minimum power necessary to carry out the desired
communications, with a maximum of 1000 watts PEP output
C. The minimum power necessary to carry out the desired
communications, with a maximum of 1500 watts PEP output
D. 2000 watts PEP output
G1C09 (C) [97.313]
What is the maximum transmitting power a station with a
General Class control operator may use on 28.150 MHz?
A. The minimum power necessary to carry out the desired
communications, with a maximum of 200 watts PEP output
B. The minimum power necessary to carry out the desired
communications, with a maximum of 1000 watts PEP output
C. The minimum power necessary to carry out the desired
communications, with a maximum of 1500 watts PEP output
D. The minimum power necessary to carry out the desired
communications, with a maximum of 2000 watts PEP output
G1C10 (D) [97.313]
What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station
may use on 1825 kHz?
A. 200 watts PEP output
B. The minimum power necessary to carry out the desired
communications, with a maximum of 1000 watts PEP output
C. 2000 watts PEP output
D. The minimum power necessary to carry out the desired
communications, with a maximum of 1500 watts PEP output
G1C11 (D) [97.303s]
Which of the following is NOT a requirement when a station
is transmitting on the 60-meter band?
A. All transmissions may only use Upper Sideband (USB)
B. The 3-dB bandwidth of a signal shall not exceed 2.8
kHz, when centered on any of the five FCC-authorized
transmitting frequencies
C. Transmissions shall not exceed an effective radiated
power (ERP) of 50 W PEP
D. Antenna height shall not exceed 50 feet above mean sea
level (AMSL)
G1D Examination element preparation; examination
administration; temporary station identification
G1D01 (B) [97.507a2]
What examination elements may you prepare when you hold a
General class operator license?
A. None
B. Elements 1 and 2 only
C. Element 1 only
D. Elements 1, 2 and 3
G1D02 (C) [97.509b3i]
What license examinations may you administer when you are
an accredited VE holding a General Class operator license?
A. None
B. General only
C. Technician and Morse code
D. Technician, General and Amateur Extra
G1D03 (A) [97.501e]
What minimum examination elements must an applicant pass
for a Technician Class operator license?
A. Element 2 only
B. Elements 1 and 2
C. Elements 2 and 3
D. Elements 1, 2 and 3
G1D04 (B) [97.501d]
What minimum examination elements must an applicant pass
for a Technician Class operator license with Morse code
credit to operate on the HF bands?
A. Element 2 only
B. Elements 1 and 2
C. Elements 2 and 3
D. Elements 1, 2 and 3
G1D05 (A) [97.509a,b]
What are the requirements for administering a Technician
Class operator examination?
A. Three VEC-accredited General Class or higher VEs must
be present
B. Two VEC-accredited General Class or higher VEs must be
present
C. Two General Class or higher VEs must be present, but
only one need be VEC accredited
D. Any two General Class or higher VEs must be present
G1D06 (D) [97.509b3i]
When may you participate as an administering VE for a
Technician Class operator license examination?
A. Once you have notified the FCC that you want to give
an examination
B. Once you have a Certificate of Successful Completion
of Examination (CSCE) for General class
C. Once you have prepared telegraphy and written
examinations for the Technician license, or obtained them
from a qualified supplier
D. Once you have been granted your FCC General class or
higher license and received your VEC accreditation
G1D07 (B) [97.119f2]
If you are a Technician Class operator with a CSCE for
General Class operator privileges, how do you identify your
station when transmitting on 14.035 MHz?
A. You must give your call sign and the location of the
VE examination where you obtained the CSCE
B. You must give your call sign, followed by the slant
mark "/", followed by the identifier "AG"
C. You may not operate on 14.035 MHz until your new
license arrives
D. No special form of identification is needed
G1D08 (C) [97.119f2]
If you are a Technician Class operator with a CSCE for
General Class operator privileges, how do you identify your
station when transmitting phone emissions on 14.325 MHz?
A. No special form of identification is needed
B. You may not operate on 14.325 MHz until your new
license arrives
C. You must give your call sign, followed by any suitable
word that denotes the slant mark and the identifier "AG"
D. You must give your call sign and the location of the
VE examination where you obtained the CSCE
G1D09 (A) [97.119f2]
If you are a Technician Class operator with a CSCE for
General Class operator privileges, when must you add the
special identifier "AG" after your call sign?
A. Whenever you operate using your new frequency
privileges
B. Whenever you operate
C. Whenever you operate using Technician frequency
privileges
D. A special identifier is not required as long as your
General class license application has been filed with the
FCC
G1D10 (D) [97.119f2]
If you are a Technician Class operator with a CSCE for
General Class operator privileges, on which of the
following band segments must you include the special
identifier "AG" after your call sign?
A. Whenever you operate from 18068 - 18168-kHz
B. Whenever you operate from 14025 - 14150-kHz and 14225
- 14350-kHz
C. Whenever you operate from 10100 - 10150-kHz
D. All of these choices are correct
G1D11 (D) [97.509b3i]
When may you participate as a VE in administering a Morse
code examination?
A. Once you have notified the FCC that you want to give
an examination
B. Once you have a Certificate of Successful Completion
of Examination (CSCE) for General class
C. Once you have prepared telegraphy and written
examinations for the Technician license, or obtained them
from a qualified supplier
D. Once you have been granted your FCC General Class or
higher operator license and received your VEC accreditation
G1D12 (C) [97.119f2]
If you are a Technician licensee with Morse code credit and
hold a CSCE for Element 3, what is one way you could
identify your station when transmitting phone emissions on
a General class amateur frequency?
A. Give your call sign followed by the words "general
class"
B. No special identification is needed, since your
license upgrade would already be shown in the FCC's
database
C. Give your call sign followed by the words "temporary
AG"
D. You must wait until your new license arrives by mail
from the FCC before using general class frequencies
G1E Local control; repeater and harmful interference
definitions; third party communications
G1E01 (B) [97.119e]
As a General Class control operator at the station of a
Technician Class operator, how must you identify the
station while transmitting on 7250 kHz?
A. With your call sign, followed by the word
"controlling" and the Technician call sign
B. With the Technician Class operator's station call
sign, followed by the slant bar "/" (or any suitable word)
and your own call sign
C. With your call sign, followed by the slant bar "/" (or
any suitable word) and the Technician call sign
D. A Technician station should not be operated on 7250-
kHz, even with a General control operator
G1E02 (D) [97.205a]
Under what circumstances may a 10-meter repeater retransmit
the 2-meter signal from a station having a Technician Class
control operator?
A. Under no circumstances
B. Only if the station on 10 meters is operating under a
Special Temporary Authorization allowing such
retransmission
C. Only during an FCC-declared general state of
communications emergency
D. Only if the 10-meter control operator holds at least a
General class license
G1E03 (A) [97.3a37]
What kind of amateur station simultaneously retransmits the
signals of other stations on a different channel?
A. Repeater station
B. Space station
C. Telecommand station
D. Relay station
G1E04 (B) [97.3a22]
What name is given to a form of interference that seriously
degrades, obstructs or repeatedly interrupts a
radiocommunication service?
A. Intentional interference
B. Harmful interference
C. Adjacent interference
D. Disruptive interference
G1E05 (C) [97.115, 97.117]
What types of messages for a third party may be transmitted
by an amateur station to a foreign country?
A. Messages for which the amateur operator is paid
B. Messages facilitating the business affairs of any
party
C. Messages of a technical nature or remarks of a
personal character
D. No messages may be transmitted to foreign countries
for third parties
G1E06 (A) [97.3a23]
Should a repeater cause harmful interference to another
repeater when a frequency coordinator has recommended the
operation of one station only, who is responsible for
resolving the interference?
A. The licensee of the uncoordinated repeater
B. Both repeater licensees
C. The licensee of the recommended repeater
D. The frequency coordinator
G1E07 (C) [97.303]
What does it mean where the FCC rules say that the amateur
service is a secondary user and another service is a
primary user?
A. Nothing special; all users of the frequency band have
equal rights to operate
B. Amateur stations are only allowed to use the frequency
band during emergencies
C. Amateur stations are allowed to use the frequency band
only if they do not cause harmful interference to primary
users
D. Amateur stations must increase transmitter power to
overcome any interference caused by primary users
G1E08 (D) [97.303]
What action must you take while using the 30-meter band
when a station assigned to the band's primary service
causes interference?
A. Notify the FCC's regional Engineer in Charge of the
interference
B. Increase your transmitter's power to overcome the
interference
C. Attempt to contact the station and request that it
stop the interference
D. Change frequencies; you may be causing harmful
interference to the other station, in violation of FCC
rules
G1E09 (C) [97.119b2]
While you are using a language other than English in making
a contact, what language must you use when identifying your
station?
A. The language being used for the contact
B. The language being used for the contact, provided the
US has a third-party communications agreement with that
country
C. English
D. Any language of a country that is a member of the
International Telecommunication Union
G1E10 (A) [97.303s]
What protection from harmful interference caused by primary
service users do amateur radio stations have while
operating in the 60-meter band?
A. None
B. Stations in the mobile and fixed service must not
interfere with amateur stations
C. Stations in the mobile and fixed service must not
interfere if an amateur station is already on the frequency
D. Stations in the mobile and fixed service must not
interfere with amateur stations if they are located in ITU
Region 2
G1E11 (A) [97.303s]
What operating restrictions must amateur radio stations
observe while operating in the 60-meter band?
A. They must not cause harmful interference to stations
operating in other radio services
B. They must transmit no more than 30 minutes during each
hour to minimize harmful interference
C. They must use lower sideband, suppressed-carrier, only
D. They must not exceed 2.0 kHz of bandwidth
G1E12 (B) [97.109e]
What must be done at an amateur radio station while it is
transmitting third party messages?
A. Keep a station log of when the message was handled
B. Use local or remote station control
C. Identify both stations that handle the message
D. Use local, remote or automatic station control
G1F Certification of external RF-power-amplifiers;
standards for certification of external RF-power
amplifiers; HF data emission standards
G1F01 (D) [97.315a]
External RF power amplifiers designed to operate below what
frequency may require FCC certification?
A. 28 MHz
B. 35 MHz
C. 50 MHz
D. 144 MHz
G1F02 (B) [97.315a]
Without a grant of FCC certification, how many external RF
amplifiers of a given design capable of operation below 144
MHz may you build or modify in one calendar year?
A. None
B. 1
C. 5
D. 10
G1F03 (B) [97.317a3]
Which of the following standards must be met where FCC
certification of an external RF amplifier is required?
A. The amplifier must not be able to amplify a 28-MHz
signal to more than ten times the input power
B. The amplifier must not be capable of reaching its
designed output power when driven with less than 50 watts
C. The amplifier must not be able to be operated for more
than ten minutes without a time delay circuit
D. The amplifier must not be able to be modified by an
amateur operator
G1F04 (D) [97.317b,c]
Which of the following would NOT disqualify an external RF
power amplifier from a FCC certification grant?
A. The capability of being modified by the operator for
use outside the amateur service bands
B. The capability of achieving full output power when
driven with less than 50 watts
C. The capability of achieving full output power on
amateur service frequencies between 24 and 35 MHz
D. The capability of being switched by the operator to
all amateur service frequencies below 24 MHz
G1F05 (D) [97.305c, 97.307f3]
What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY
emissions transmitted on frequency bands below 10 meters?
A. 56 kilobauds
B. 19.6 kilobauds
C. 1200 bauds
D. 300 bauds
G1F06 (C) [97.307f5]
What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for packet
emission on the 2-meter band?
A. 300 bauds
B. 1200 bauds
C. 19.6 kilobauds
D. 56 kilobauds
G1F07 (C) [97.307f4]
What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data
emission on the 10-meter band?
A. 56 kilobauds
B. 19.6 kilobauds
C. 1200 bauds
D. 300 bauds
G1F08 (B) [97.307f5]
What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data
emission on the 6- and 2-meter bands?
A. 56 kilobauds
B. 19.6 kilobauds
C. 1200 bauds
D. 300 bauds
G1F09 (A) [97.307f5]
What is the maximum authorized bandwidth for RTTY, data or
multiplexed emissions using an unspecified digital code
transmitted on the 6- and 2-meter bands?
A. 20 kHz
B. 50 kHz
C. The total bandwidth shall not exceed that of a singlesideband
phone emission
D. The total bandwidth shall not exceed 10 times that of
a CW emission
G1F10 (A) [97.317b]
What must an external RF amplifier exhibit in order to
receive a FCC grant of certification?
A. It must not be capable of operation on any frequency
between 24 MHz and 35 MHz
B. Its wiring must be accessible to permit modification
of the amplifier
C. It must have an internal RF sensing switch to place
the amplifier in the transmit mode
D. Its manual must provide instructions for modification
of the amplifier
G1F11 (A) [97.317b1]
What is the maximum power gain that a 10-meter RF amplifier
can have to receive FCC certification?
A. 6 dB
B. 3 dB
C. 4 dB
D. 10 dB
SUBELEMENT G2 -- OPERATING PROCEDURES [6 Exam Questions --
6 Groups]
G2A Phone operating procedures
G2A01 (A)
Which sideband is commonly used for 20-meter phone
operation?
A. Upper
B. Lower
C. Amplitude compandored
D. Double
G2A02 (B)
Which sideband is commonly used on 3925-kHz for phone
operation?
A. Upper
B. Lower
C. Amplitude compandored
D. Double
G2A03 (B)
Which sideband is commonly used for 40-meter phone
operation?
A. Upper
B. Lower
C. Amplitude compandored
D. Double
G2A04 (D)
Which sideband is commonly used for 10-meter phone
operation?
A. Double
B. Lower
C. Amplitude compandored
D. Upper
G2A05 (A)
Which sideband is commonly used for 15-Meter phone
operation?
A. Upper
B. Lower
C. Amplitude compandored
D. Double
G2A06 (C)
Which sideband is commonly used for 17-Meter phone
operation?
A. Amplitude compandored
B. Lower
C. Upper
D. Double
G2A07 (C)
Which of the following modes of voice communication is most
commonly used on the High Frequency Amateur bands?
A. Frequency modulation (FM)
B. Amplitude modulation (AM)
C. Single sideband (SSB)
D. Phase modulation (PM)
G2A08 (D)
Why is the single sideband mode of voice transmission used
more frequently than Amplitude Modulation (AM) on the HF
amateur bands?
A. Single sideband transmissions use less spectrum space
B. Single sideband transmissions are more power efficient
C. No carrier is transmitted with a single sideband
transmission
D. All of these choices are correct
G2A09 (B)
Which of the following statements is true of a lower
sideband transmission?
A. It is called lower sideband because the lower sideband
is greatly attenuated
B. It is called lower sideband because the lower sideband
is the only sideband transmitted, since the upper sideband
is suppressed
C. The lower sideband is wider than the upper sideband
D. The lower sideband is the only sideband that is
authorized on the 160-, 75- and 40-meter amateur bands
G2A10 (A)
Which of the following statements is true of an upper
sideband transmission?
A. Only the upper sideband is transmitted, since the
lower sideband is suppressed
B. The upper sideband is greatly attenuated as compared
with the carrier
C. The upper sideband is greatly attenuated as compared
with the lower sideband
D. Only the upper sideband may be used for phone
transmissions on the amateur bands with frequencies above
14 MHz
G2A11 (D)
Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-
, 75- and 40-meter bands?
A. The lower sideband is more efficient at these
frequency bands
B. The lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these
frequency bands
C. Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
D. Current amateur practice is to use lower sideband on
these frequency bands
G2B Operating courtesy
G2B01 (C)
If you are the net control station of a daily HF net, what
should you do if the frequency on which you normally meet
is in use just before the net begins?
A. Reduce your output power and start the net as usual
B. Increase your power output so that net participants
will be able to hear you over the existing activity
C. Conduct the net on a clear frequency 3 to 5-kHz away
from the regular net frequency
D. Cancel the net for that day
G2B02 (A)
If a net is about to begin on a frequency which you and
another station are using, what should you do?
A. As a courtesy to the net, move to a different
frequency
B. Increase your power output to ensure that all net
participants can hear you
C. Transmit as long as possible on the frequency so that
no other stations may use it
D. Turn off your radio
G2B03 (C)
If propagation changes during your contact and you notice
increasing interference from other activity on the same
frequency, what should you do?
A. Tell the interfering stations to change frequency,
since you were there first
B. Report the interference to your local Amateur
Auxiliary Coordinator
C. Move your contact to another frequency
D. Turn on your amplifier to overcome the interference
G2B04 (B)
When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum
frequency separation from a contact in progress should you
allow to minimize interference?
A. 5 to 50 Hz
B. 150 to 500 Hz
C. 1 to 3 kHz
D. 3 to 6 kHz
G2B05 (B)
When selecting a single-sideband phone transmitting
frequency, what minimum frequency separation from a contact
in progress should you allow (between suppressed carriers)
to minimize interference?
A. 150 to 500 Hz
B. Approximately 3 kHz
C. Approximately 6 kHz
D. Approximately 10 kHz
G2B06 (B)
When selecting a RTTY transmitting frequency, what minimum
frequency separation from a contact in progress should you
allow (center to center) to minimize interference?
A. 60 Hz
B. 250 to 500 Hz
C. Approximately 3 kHz
D. Approximately 6 kHz
G2B07 (A)
What is a band plan?
A. A voluntary guideline beyond the divisions established
by the FCC for using different operating modes within an
amateur band
B. A guideline from the FCC for making amateur frequency
band allocations
C. A plan of operating schedules within an amateur band
published by the FCC
D. A plan devised by a club to best use a frequency band
during a contest
G2B08 (A)
What is another name for a voluntary guideline that guides
amateur activities and extends beyond the divisions
established by the FCC for using different operating modes
within an amateur band?
A. A "Band Plan"
B. A "Frequency and Solar Cycle Guide"
C. The "Knowledgeable Operator's Guide"
D. The "Frequency Use Guidebook"
G2B09 (D)
When choosing a frequency for Slow-Scan TV (SSTV)
operation, what should you do to comply with good amateur
practice?
A. Review FCC Part 97 Rules regarding permitted
frequencies and emissions
B. Follow generally accepted gentlemen's agreement band
plans
C. Before transmitting, listen to the frequency to be
used to avoid interfering with an ongoing communication
D. All of these choices
G2B10 (D)
When choosing a frequency for radioteletype (RTTY)
operation, what should you do to comply with good amateur
practice?
A. Review FCC Part 97 Rules regarding permitted
frequencies and emissions
B. Follow generally accepted gentlemen's agreement band
plans
C. Before transmitting, first listen to the frequency to
be used to avoid interfering with an ongoing communication
D. All of these choices
G2B11 (D)
When choosing a frequency for HF Packet operation, what
should you do to comply with good amateur practice?
A. Review FCC Part 97 Rules regarding permitted
frequencies and emissions
B. Follow generally accepted gentlemen's agreement band
plans
C. Before transmitting, first listen on the frequency to
be used to avoid interfering with an ongoing communication
D. All of these choices
G2B12 (A)
What is a considerate way to avoid harmful interference
when using phone?
A. Ask if the frequency is in use, and say your call sign
B. Call MAYDAY to make sure that the frequency is clear
C. Call CQ for two minutes and see if anyone responds
D. Turn on your amplifier, then go ahead and transmit
G2B13 (C)
What is a considerate way to avoid harmful interference
when using Morse code or CW?
A. Send the letter "V" 12 times and then listen for a
response
B. Call CQ for two minutes and see if anyone responds
C. Send "QRL? de" followed by your call sign and listen
for a response
D. Turn on your amplifier, then go ahead and transmit
G2C Emergencies, including drills and emergency
communications
G2C01 (C)
What means may an amateur station in distress use to
attract attention, make known its condition and location,
and obtain assistance?
A. Only Morse code signals sent on internationally
recognized emergency channels
B. Any means of radiocommunication, but only on
internationally recognized emergency channels
C. Any means of radiocommunication
D. Only those means of radiocommunication for which the
station is licensed
G2C02 (A)
During a disaster in the US, when may an amateur station
make transmissions necessary to meet essential
communication needs and assist relief operations?
A. When normal communication systems are overloaded,
damaged or disrupted
B. Only when the local RACES net is activated
C. Never; only official emergency stations may transmit
in a disaster
D. When normal communication systems are working but are
not convenient
G2C03 (A)
If a disaster disrupts normal communications in your area,
what may the FCC do?
A. Declare a temporary state of communication emergency
B. Temporarily seize your equipment for use in disaster
communications
C. Order all stations across the country to stop
transmitting at once
D. Nothing until the President declares the area a
disaster area
G2C04 (D)
If a disaster disrupts normal communications in an area
what would the FCC include in any notice of a temporary
state of communication emergency?
A. Any additional test questions needed for the licensing
of amateur emergency communications workers
B. A list of organizations authorized to temporarily
seize your equipment for disaster communications
C. Any special conditions requiring the use of noncommercial
power systems
D. Any special conditions and special rules to be
observed by stations during the emergency
G2C05 (D)
During an emergency, what power output limitations must be
observed by a station in distress?
A. 200 watts PEP
B. 1500 watts PEP
C. 1000 watts PEP during daylight hours, reduced to 200
watts PEP during the night
D. There are no limitations during an emergency
G2C06 (C)
During a disaster in the US, what frequencies may be used
to obtain assistance?
A. Only frequencies in the 80-meter band
B. Only frequencies in the 40-meter band
C. Any frequency
D. Any United Nations approved frequency
G2C07 (B)
If you are communicating with another amateur station and
hear a station in distress break in, what is the first
thing you should do?
A. Continue your communication because you were on
frequency first
B. Acknowledge the station in distress and determine its
location and what assistance may be needed
C. Change to a different frequency so the station in
distress may have a clear channel to call for assistance
D. Immediately cease all transmissions because stations
in distress have emergency rights to the frequency
G2C08 (A)
Why do stations in the Radio Amateur Civil Emergency
Service (RACES) participate in training tests and drills?
A. To provide orderly and efficient operations for the
civil defense organization they serve in the event of an
emergency
B. To ensure that members attend monthly on-the-air
meetings of the civil defense organization they serve
C. To ensure that RACES members are able to conduct tests
and drills
D. To acquaint members of RACES with other members they
may meet in an emergency
G2C09 (C)
When are you prohibited from helping a station in distress?
A. When that station is not transmitting on amateur
frequencies
B. When the station in distress offers no call sign
C. You are not ever prohibited from helping any station
in distress
D. When the station is not another amateur station
G2C10 (B)
When FCC declares a temporary state of communication
emergency, what must you do?
A. Stay off the air until 30 days after FCC lifts the
emergency notice
B. Abide by the limitations or conditions set forth in
the FCC notice
C. Only communicate with stations within 2 miles of your
location
D. Nothing; wait until the President declares a formal
emergency before taking further action
G2C11 (C)
During a disaster in the US, which of the following
emission modes must be used to obtain assistance?
A. Only SSB
B. Only SSB and CW
C. Any mode
D. Only CW
G2C12 (B)
What information should anyone who sends a distress
transmission give to stations who answer?
A. The ITU region and grid square locator of the
emergency
B. The location and nature of the distress
C. The time that the emergency occurred and the names of
the persons involved
D. The agencies to notify and the name of the emergency
coordinator
G2C13 (A)
What frequency should be used to send a distress call?
A. Whatever frequency has the best chance of
communicating the distress message
B. 3873 kHz at night or 7285 kHz during the day
C. Only frequencies that are within your operating
privileges
D. Only frequencies used by police, fire or emergency
medical services
G2D Amateur auxiliary to the FCC's Compliance and
Information Bureau; antenna orientation to minimize
interference; HF operations, including logging practices
G2D01 (A)
What is the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC's Compliance and
Information Bureau?
A. Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to
monitor the airwaves for rules violations
B. Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing
examinations
C. Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination
for amateur VHF repeaters
D. Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to
help civil defense organizations in times of emergency
G2D02 (B)
What are the objectives of the Amateur Auxiliary to the
FCC's Compliance and Information Bureau?
A. To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing
examinations
B. To encourage amateur self-regulation and compliance
with the rules
C. To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly
spectrum usage
D. To provide emergency and public safety communications
G2D03 (B)
Why are direction-finding "Fox Hunts" important to the
Amateur Auxiliary?
A. Fox Hunts compel amateurs to upgrade their licenses
B. Fox Hunts provide an opportunity to practice
direction-finding skills
C. Someone always receives an FCC Notice of Apparent
Liability (NAL) when a Fox Hunt is concluded
D. Fox Hunts allow amateurs to work together with
Environmental Protection Agencies
G2D04 (B)
What is an azimuthal projection map?
A. A map projection centered on the North Pole
B. A map projection centered on a particular location,
used to determine the shortest path between points on the
surface of the earth
C. A map that shows the angle at which an amateur
satellite crosses the equator
D. A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that
an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the
equator with each orbit
G2D05 (A)
What is the most useful type of map to use when orienting a
directional HF antenna toward a distant station?
A. Azimuthal projection
B. Mercator
C. Polar projection
D. Topographical
G2D06 (C)
A directional antenna pointed in the long-path direction to
another station is generally oriented how many degrees from
its short-path heading?
A. 45 degrees
B. 90 degrees
C. 180 degrees
D. 270 degrees
G2D07 (B) [97.103b]
If a visiting amateur transmits from your station on 14.325
MHz, which of these is NOT true?
A. You must first give permission for the visiting
amateur to use your station
B. You must keep in your station log the call sign of the
visiting amateur together with the time and date of
transmissions
C. The FCC may think that you were the station's control
operator, unless your station records show otherwise
D. You both are equally responsible for the proper
operation of the station
G2D08 (D)
Why should I keep a log if the FCC doesn't require it?
A. To help with your reply, if FCC requests information
on who was control operator of your station for a given
date and time
B. Logs provide information (callsigns, dates & times of
contacts) used for many operating contests and awards
C. Logs are necessary to accurately verify contacts made
weeks, months or years earlier, especially when completing
QSL cards
D. All of these choices
G2D09 (D)
What information is normally contained in a station log?
A. Date and time of contact
B. Band and/or frequency of the contact
C. Call sign of station contacted and the RST signal
report given
D. All of these choices
G2D10 (C)
Which of the following is a good reason to keep a log of
your station's activities?
A. It is required by the FCC's rules
B. It is a tradition from the earliest days of amateur
radio
C. It can aid you in resolving interference complaints
D. It can be a source of great enjoyment when reviewed in
later years
G2D11 (C)
Which HF antenna would best be used to focus your signal to
minimize interference?
A. A bidirectional antenna
B. A horizontal antenna positioned broadside to the
desired direction
C. A unidirectional antenna
D. An omnidirectional antenna at low power
G2D12 (A) [97.303s]
Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when
operating in the 60-meter band?
A. If you are using other than a dipole antenna, you must
keep a record of the gain of your antenna
B. You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency,
power level and stations worked
C. No records are required
D. You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your
equipment and the antenna used
G2E Third-party communications; ITU Regions; VOX operation
G2E01 (C) [97.117]
What type of messages may be transmitted to an amateur
station in a foreign country?
A. Messages of any type
B. Messages that are not religious, political, or
patriotic in nature
C. Messages of a technical nature or personal remarks of
relative unimportance
D. Messages of any type, but only if the foreign country
has a third-party communications agreement with the US
G2E02 (B)
Which of the following statements is true of VOX operation?
A. The received signal is more natural sounding
B. This mode allows "Hands Free' operation
C. Frequency spectrum is conserved
D. The duty cycle of the transmitter is reduced
G2E03 (D)
Which of the following user adjustable controls are usually
associated with VOX circuitry?
A. Anti-VOX
B. VOX Delay
C. VOX Sensitivity
D. All of these choices are correct
G2E04 (C)
What is the purpose of the VOX sensitivity control?
A. To set the timing of transmitter activation
B. To set the audio frequency range at which the
transmitter activates
C. To set the audio level at which the transmitter
activates
D. None of these choices is correct
G2E05 (B)
In which International Telecommunication Union Region is
the continental United States?
A. Region 1
B. Region 2
C. Region 3
D. Region 4
G2E06 (A)
In which International Telecommunication Union Region are
Europe and Africa?
A. Region 1
B. Region 2
C. Region 3
D. Region 4
G2E07 (C)
In which International Telecommunication Union Region is
Australia?
A. Region 1
B. Region 2
C. Region 3
D. Region 4
G2E08 (C)
Which of the following organizations is responsible for
international regulation of the radio spectrum?
A. The International Regulatory Commission
B. The International Radio Union
C. The International Telecommunications Union
D. The International Frequency-Spectrum Commission
G2E09 (D)
What do the initials "ITU" stand for?
A. Interstate Telecommunications Union
B. International Telephony Union
C. International Transmission Union
D. International Telecommunications Union
G2E10 (B)
What is the circuit called that causes a transmitter to
automatically transmit when an operator speaks into its
microphone?
A. VXO
B. VOX
C. VCO
D. VFO
G2E11 (A)
What is the best reason to use a headset with an attached
microphone and VOX control when using a mobile station?
A. For safer, hands-free operation
B. It allows you to make quicker transmissions
C. To eliminate ambient noise from your transmissions
D. To reduce outside distractions while operating
G2E12 (A)
What function does an anti-VOX circuit perform?
A. It prevents received audio from keying the transmitter
B. It prevents background noise from keying the
transmitter
C. It prevents unauthorized persons from keying the
transmitter
D. It prevents activation of the transmitter during CW
operation
G2E13 (A)
Which of the following would indicate the completion of the
transmitting of a formal message when using phone?
A. The phrase, "End of message"
B. The word "Break"
C. The Q-signal "QSL?"
D. The Q-signal "QRV"
G2F CW operating procedures, including procedural signals,
Q signals and common abbreviations; full break-in; RTTY
operating procedures, including procedural signals and
common abbreviations and operating procedures for other
digital modes, such as HF packet, AMTOR, PacTOR, G-TOR,
Clover and PSK31
G2F01 (D)
Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy
(QSK)?
A. Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign BK
B. Automatic keyers are used to send Morse code instead
of hand keys
C. An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch
before and after every transmission
D. Incoming signals are received between transmitted key
pulses
G2F02 (A)
In what segment of the 80-meter band do most data
transmissions take place?
A. 3580 - 3620-kHz
B. 3500 - 3525-kHz
C. 3700 - 3750-kHz
D. 3775 - 3825-kHz
G2F03 (B)
In what segment of the 20-meter band do most RTTY
transmissions take place?
A. 14.000 - 14.050 MHz
B. 14.070 - 14.095 MHz
C. 14.150 - 14.225 MHz
D. 14.275 - 14.350 MHz
G2F04 (D)
Which of the following is NOT correct?
A. ASCII is a 7-bit code, with start, stop and parity
bits
B. The benefit of using AMTOR is its error detection and
correction properties
C. Baudot is a 5-bit code, with additional start and stop
bits
D. The two major AMTOR operating modes are SELCAL and
LISTEN
G2F05 (B)
What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions
in the amateur HF bands?
A. 85 Hz
B. 170 Hz
C. 425 Hz
D. 850 Hz
G2F06 (A)
Why are the string of letters R and Y (sent as
"RYRYRYRY...") occasionally used at the beginning of RTTY
or other data transmissions?
A. This allows time to 'tune in' a station prior to the
actual message being sent
B. To keep these commonly-used keys functional
C. These are the important mark and space keys
D. To make sure the transmitter is functional before
sending a message
G2F07 (B)
What does the abbreviation "RTTY" stand for?
A. "Returning to you", meaning "your turn to transmit"
B. Radioteletype
C. A general call to all digital stations
D. Morse code practice over the air
G2F08 (C)
What prosign is sent using CW to indicate the end of a
formal message?
A. SK - I acknowledge
B. BK - break
C. AR - end of message
D. KN - called station only, go ahead
G2F09 (D)
What character sequence is sent using RTTY or other data
modes to indicate the end of a formal message?
A. CZCZ
B. KKKK
C. XXXXX
D. NNNN
G2F10 (A)
How many data bits are sent in a single PSK31 character?
A. The number varies
B. 5
C. 7
D. 8
G2F11 (C)
What part of a data packet contains the routing and
handling information?
A. Directory
B. Preamble
C. Header
D. Footer
SUBELEMENT G3 -- RADIO WAVE PROPAGATION [3 Exam Questions -
- 3 Groups]
G3A Ionospheric disturbances; sunspots and solar radiation
G3A01 (A)
What can be done at an amateur station to continue
communications during a sudden ionospheric disturbance?
A. Try a higher frequency
B. Try the other sideband
C. Try a different antenna polarization
D. Try a different frequency shift
G3A02 (B)
What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on
the day-time ionospheric propagation of HF radio waves?
A. It disrupts higher-latitude paths more than lowerlatitude
paths
B. It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than
those on higher frequencies
C. It disrupts communications via satellite more than
direct communications
D. None, only areas on the night side of the earth are
affected
G3A03 (C)
How long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray
radiation from solar flares to affect radio-wave
propagation on the earth?
A. The effect is almost instantaneous
B. 1.5 minutes
C. 8 minutes
D. 20 to 40 hours
G3A04 (B)
What is solar flux?
A. The density of the sun's magnetic field
B. The radio energy emitted by the sun
C. The number of sunspots on the side of the sun facing
the earth
D. A measure of the tilt of the earth's ionosphere on the
side toward the sun
G3A05 (D)
What is the solar-flux index?
A. A measure of solar activity that is taken annually
B. A measure of solar activity that compares daily
readings with results from the last six months
C. Another name for the American sunspot number
D. A measure of solar activity that is taken at a
specific frequency
G3A06 (D)
What is a geomagnetic disturbance?
A. A sudden drop in the solar-flux index
B. A shifting of the earth's magnetic pole
C. Ripples in the ionosphere
D. A dramatic change in the earth's magnetic field over a
short period of time
G3A07 (A)
At which latitudes are propagation paths more sensitive to
geomagnetic disturbances?
A. Those greater than 45 degrees latitude
B. Those between 5 and 45 degrees latitude
C. Those near the equator
D. All paths are affected equally
G3A08 (B)
What can be the effect of a major geomagnetic storm on
radio-wave propagation?
A. Improved high-latitude HF propagation
B. Degraded high-latitude HF propagation
C. Improved ground-wave propagation
D. Improved chances of UHF ducting
G3A09 (C)
When sunspot numbers are high, what is the effect on radio
communications?
A. High-frequency radio signals are absorbed
B. Frequencies above 300 MHz become usable for longdistance
communication
C. Long-distance communication in the upper HF and lower
VHF range is enhanced
D. High-frequency radio signals become weak and distorted
G3A10 (A)
What is the sunspot number?
A. A daily index of sunspot activity
B. The number of sunspots observed during one solar
rotation
C. The number of sunspots observed during a sunspot cycle
D. The number of sunspots observed averaged over a seven
day period
G3A11 (C)
What is the sunspot cycle?
A. The 9- to 11-year periods when sunspots move from the
sun's pole to its equatorial region
B. The 9- to 11-year periods when sunspots cause coronal
holes to appear
C. The approximately 11-year variation in the sunspot
number
D. The approximately 11-year periods when sunspots
combine to form flares
G3A12 (B)
What is the K-index?
A. A linear index of solar activity
B. A measure of geomagnetic stability
C. An index of solar flux measured at Boulder, Colorado
D. A daily value measured on a scale from 0 to 400 to
express the range of disturbance of the geomagnetic field
G3A13 (C)
What is the A-index?
A. A monthly linear index of solar activity
B. An weekly index of solar flux measured at Boulder,
Colorado
C. A daily value measured on a scale from 0 to 400 to
express the range of disturbance of the geomagnetic field
D. An index used by NOAA to correlate the visual color
wavelengths seen with Aurora Borealis (Northern Lights)
G3A14 (C)
How does solar coronal hole activity affect radio
communications?
A. The activity emits charged particles that improve HF
communications
B. The activity emits charged particles that improve
VHF/UHF ducting
C. The activity emits charged particles that usually
disrupt HF communications
D. The activity emits charged particles, but they never
reach Earth's magnetosphere
G3A15 (D)
How long does it take charged particles from coronal mass
ejections (CMEs) to affect radio-wave propagation on the
earth?
A. Almost instantaneously
B. About 5 minutes
C. About 8 minutes
D. 20 to 40 hours
G3A16 (A)
What might result during periods of high geomagnetic
activity?
A. A visible aurora
B. Excellent high-frequency radio conditions
C. Poor 6-meter conditions
D. F-layer absorption
G3B Maximum usable frequency; propagation "hops"
G3B01 (B)
If the maximum usable frequency (MUF) on the path from
Minnesota to France is 24 MHz, which band should offer the
best chance for a successful contact?
A. 10 meters
B. 15 meters
C. 20 meters
D. 40 meters
G3B02 (C)
If the maximum usable frequency (MUF) on the path from Ohio
to Germany is 17 MHz, which band should offer the best
chance for a successful contact?
A. 80 meters
B. 40 meters
C. 20 meters
D. 2 meters
G3B03 (C)
If the HF radio-wave propagation (skip) is generally good
on the 24-MHz and 28-MHz bands for several days, when might
you expect a similar condition to occur?
A. 7 days later
B. 14 days later
C. 28 days later
D. 90 days later
G3B04 (A)
What is one way to determine if the maximum usable
frequency (MUF) is high enough to support 28-MHz
propagation between your station and western Europe?
A. Listen for signals on a 10-meter beacon frequency
B. Listen for signals on a 20-meter beacon frequency
C. Listen for signals on a 39-meter broadcast frequency
D. Listen for WWVH time signals on 20 MHz
G3B05 (A)
What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below
the maximum usable frequency (MUF) when they are sent into
the ionosphere?
A. They are bent back to the earth
B. They pass through the ionosphere
C. They are completely absorbed by the ionosphere
D. They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle
the Earth
G3B06 (C)
Where would you tune to hear beacons that would help you
determine propagation conditions on the 20-meter band?
A. 28.2 MHz
B. 21.1 MHz
C. 14.1 MHz
D. 18.1 MHz
G3B07 (D)
During periods of low solar activity, which frequencies are
the least reliable for long-distance communication?
A. Frequencies below 3.5 MHz
B. Frequencies near 3.5 MHz
C. Frequencies on or above 10 MHz
D. Frequencies above 20 MHz
G3B08 (D)
At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band
usually support worldwide propagation during daylight
hours?
A. At the summer solstice
B. Only at the maximum point of the solar cycle
C. Only at the minimum point of the solar cycle
D. At any point in the solar cycle
G3B09 (C)
What is the maximum distance along the Earth's surface that
is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?
A. 180 miles
B. 1200 miles
C. 2500 miles
D. None; the F2 region does not support radio-wave
propagation
G3B10 (B)
What is the maximum distance along the Earth's surface that
is normally covered in one hop using the E region?
A. 180 miles
B. 1200 miles
C. 2500 miles
D. None of these choices is correct
G3B11 (A)
What happens to HF propagation when the lowest usable
frequency (LUF) exceeds the maximum usable frequency (MUF)?
A. No HF radio frequency will support communications
along an ionospheric signal path
B. The lowest usable frequency can never exceed the
maximum usable frequency
C. The ionospheric absorption of HF radio signals
increases by 3 dB along every signal path
D. All ionospheric propagation paths are still usable,
but the signal-to-noise ratio decreases
G3B12 (D)
What factors affect the maximum usable frequency (MUF)?
A. Path distance and locations
B. Time of day and season
C. Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
D. All of these choices are correct
G3B13 (D)
How might a skywave signal sound if it arrives at your
receiver by both short path and long path propagation?
A. Periodic fading every 10 seconds
B. Signal strength increased by 3 dB
C. Signal strength decreased by 3 dB
D. A well-defined echo can be heard
G3B14 (A)
A short distance hop on 10 meters might indicate what
conditions on 6 meters?
A. The MUF exceeds 50 MHz
B. Absolutely no chance of a skywave 6-meter band opening
C. 6-meter ground waves will diminish
D. 10-meter propagation has no bearing on possible 6-
meter propagation
G3C Height of ionospheric regions; critical angle and
frequency; HF scatter
G3C01 (B)
What is the average height of maximum ionization of the E
region?
A. 45 miles
B. 70 miles
C. 200 miles
D. 1200 miles
G3C02 (A)
When can the F2 region be expected to reach its maximum
height at your location?
A. At noon during the summer
B. At midnight during the summer
C. At dusk in the spring and fall
D. At noon during the winter
G3C03 (C)
Why is the F2 region mainly responsible for the longestdistance
radio-wave propagation?
A. Because it exists only at night
B. Because it is the lowest ionospheric region
C. Because it is the highest ionospheric region
D. Because it does not absorb radio waves as much as
other ionospheric regions
G3C04 (D)
What is the "critical angle" as used in radio-wave
propagation?
A. The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave
to the earth under specific ionospheric conditions
B. The compass direction of a distant station
C. The compass direction opposite that of a distant
station
D. The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio
wave to the earth under specific ionospheric conditions
G3C05 (C)
What is the main reason the 160-, 80- and 40-meter amateur
bands tend to be useful only for short-distance
communications during daylight hours?
A. Because of a lack of activity
B. Because of auroral propagation
C. Because of D-region absorption
D. Because of magnetic flux
G3C06 (B)
What is a characteristic of HF scatter signals?
A. High intelligibility
B. A wavering sound
C. Reversed modulation
D. Reversed sidebands
G3C07 (D)
What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?
A. Auroral activity and changes in the earth's magnetic
field
B. Propagation through ground waves that absorb much of
the signal
C. The state of the E-region at the point of refraction
D. Energy scattered into the skip zone through several
radio-wave paths
G3C08 (A)
Why are HF scatter signals usually weak?
A. A part of the signal energy is propagated into the
skip zone
B. Auroral activity absorbs most of the signal energy
C. Propagation through ground waves absorbs most of the
signal energy
D. The F region of the ionosphere absorbs most of the
signal energy
G3C09 (B)
What type of radio-wave propagation allows a signal to be
detected at a distance too far for ground-wave propagation
but too near for normal sky-wave propagation?
A. Ground wave
B. Scatter
C. Sporadic-E skip
D. Short-path skip
G3C10 (D)
When does scatter propagation on the HF bands most often
occur?
A. When the sunspot cycle is at a minimum and D-region
absorption is high
B. At night
C. When the F1 and F2 regions are combined
D. When communicating on frequencies above the maximum
usable frequency (MUF)
G3C11 (A)
Which is true about ionospheric absorption near the maximum
usable frequency (MUF)?
A. Absorption will be minimum
B. Absorption is independent of frequency
C. Absorption approaches maximum
D. There is no correlation between MUF and absorption
G3C12 (D)
Daylight fading on the 40-meter band is associated most
with which ionospheric layer?
A. The F2 layer
B. The F1 layer
C. The E layer
D. The D layer
SUBELEMENT G4 -- AMATEUR RADIO PRACTICES [5 Exam Questions
-- 5 Groups]
G4A Two-tone test; electronic TR switch; amplifier
neutralization
G4A01 (C)
What kind of input signal is used to test the amplitude
linearity of a single-sideband phone transmitter while
viewing the output on an oscilloscope?
A. Normal speech
B. An audio-frequency sine wave
C. Two audio-frequency sine waves
D. An audio-frequency square wave
G4A02 (C)
When testing the amplitude linearity of a single-sideband
transmitter, what kind of audio tones are fed into the
microphone input and on what kind of instrument is the
transmitter output observed?
A. Two harmonically related tones are fed in, and the
output is observed on an oscilloscope
B. Two harmonically related tones are fed in, and the
output is observed on a distortion analyzer
C. Two non-harmonically related tones are fed in, and the
output is observed on an oscilloscope
D. Two non-harmonically related tones are fed in, and the
output is observed on a distortion analyzer
G4A03 (D)
What audio frequencies are used in a two-tone test of the
linearity of a single-sideband phone transmitter?
A. 20 Hz and 20 kHz tones must be used
B. 1200 Hz and 2400 Hz tones must be used
C. Any two audio tones may be used, but they must be
within the transmitter audio passband, and must be
harmonically related
D. Any two audio tones may be used, but they must be
within the transmitter audio passband, and should not be
harmonically related
G4A04 (A)
At what point in an HF transceiver block diagram would an
electronic TR switch normally appear?
A. Between the transmitter and low-pass filter
B. Between the low-pass filter and antenna
C. At the antenna feed point
D. At the power supply feed point
G4A05 (C)
Why is an electronic TR switch preferable to a mechanical
one?
A. It allows greater receiver sensitivity
B. Its circuitry is simpler
C. It has a higher operating speed
D. It allows cleaner output signals
G4A06 (A)
As a power amplifier is tuned, what reading on its gridcurrent
meter indicates the best neutralization?
A. A minimum change in grid current as the output circuit
is changed
B. A maximum change in grid current as the output circuit
is changed
C. Minimum grid current
D. Maximum grid current
G4A07 (D)
Why is neutralization necessary for some vacuum-tube
amplifiers?
A. To reduce the limits of loaded Q
B. To reduce grid-to-cathode leakage
C. To cancel AC hum from the filament transformer
D. To cancel oscillation caused by the effects of
interelectrode capacitance
G4A08 (C)
In a properly neutralized RF amplifier, what type of
feedback is used?
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. Negative
D. Positive
G4A09 (B)
What does a neutralizing circuit do in an RF amplifier?
A. It controls differential gain
B. It cancels the effects of positive feedback
C. It eliminates AC hum from the power supply
D. It reduces incidental grid modulation
G4A10 (B)
What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier
stage of a transmitter?
A. To limit the modulation index
B. To eliminate self oscillations
C. To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
D. To keep the carrier on frequency
G4A11 (A)
What type of transmitter performance does a two-tone test
analyze?
A. Linearity
B. Carrier and undesired sideband suppression
C. Percentage of frequency modulation
D. Percentage of carrier phase shift
G4A12 (B)
What type of signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?
A. Two audio signals of the same frequency, but shifted
90-degrees and are within the transmitter's modulation
bandpass
B. Two non-harmonically related audio signals that are
within the modulation bandpass of a transmitter
C. Any two audio frequency signals as long as they are
within the transmitter's modulation bandpass
D. Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal
amplitude that are within the transmitter's modulation
bandpass
G4A13 (D)
In what way is a diode like a switch?
A. It permits current flow at bias voltages less than its
zener voltage and blocks current at bias voltages greater
than its zener voltage
B. It permits current flow when reverse biased and blocks
current when forward biased
C. The voltage drop across it increases as forward bias
increases and decreases as reverse bias decreases
D. It permits current flow when forward biased and blocks
current when reverse biased
G4B Test equipment: oscilloscope; signal tracer; antenna
noise bridge; monitoring oscilloscope; field-strength
meters
G4B01 (D)
What item of test equipment contains horizontal- and
vertical-channel amplifiers?
A. An ohmmeter
B. A signal generator
C. An ammeter
D. An oscilloscope
G4B02 (D)
What is a digital oscilloscope?
A. An oscilloscope used only for signal tracing in
digital circuits
B. An oscilloscope used only for troubleshooting
computers
C. An oscilloscope used only for troubleshooting
switching power supply circuits
D. An oscilloscope designed around digital technology
rather than analog technology
G4B03 (D)
How would a signal tracer normally be used?
A. To identify the source of radio transmissions
B. To make exact drawings of signal waveforms
C. To show standing wave patterns on open-wire feed-lines
D. To identify an inoperative stage in a receiver
G4B04 (C)
How is a noise bridge normally used?
A. It is connected at an antenna's feed point and reads
the antenna's noise figure
B. It is connected between a transmitter and an antenna
and is tuned for minimum SWR
C. It is connected between a receiver and an antenna of
unknown impedance and is tuned for minimum noise
D. It is connected between an antenna and ground and is
tuned for minimum SWR
G4B05 (A)
What is the best instrument to use to check the signal
quality of a CW or single-sideband phone transmitter?
A. A monitoring oscilloscope
B. A field-strength meter
C. A sidetone monitor
D. A signal tracer and an audio amplifier
G4B06 (D)
What signal source is connected to the vertical input of a
monitoring oscilloscope when checking the quality of a
transmitted signal?
A. The IF output of a monitoring receiver
B. The audio input of the transmitter
C. The RF signals of a nearby receiving antenna
D. The RF output of the transmitter
G4B07 (C)
What is the purpose of a field-strength meter?
A. To determine the standing-wave ratio on a transmission
line
B. To check the output modulation of a transmitter
C. To monitor relative RF output
D. To increase average transmitter output
G4B08 (A)
What simple instrument may be used to monitor relative RF
output during antenna and transmitter adjustments?
A. A field-strength meter
B. An antenna noise bridge
C. A multimeter
D. A metronome
G4B09 (C)
In order to raise the S-meter reading on a receiver from S8
to S9, how much must the power output of a transmitter be
increased?
A. Approximately 2 times
B. Approximately 3 times
C. Approximately 4 times
D. Approximately 5 times
G4B10 (B)
What type of information does a field strength meter
provide?
A. The gain in dBi of an antenna
B. The field pattern of an antenna
C. The presence and amount of phase distortion of a
transmitter
D. The presence and amount of amplitude distortion of a
transmitter
G4B11 (A)
For which of the following applications might you use a
field strength meter?
A. Close-in RDF work
B. A modulation monitor for a frequency or phase
modulation transmitter
C. An overmodulation indicator for a SSB transmitter
D. A keying indicator for a RTTY or packet transmitter
G4B12 (B)
What is one way a noise bridge might be used?
A. Determining an antenna's gain in dBi
B. Pre-tuning an antenna tuner
C. Determining the directivity of an antenna
D. Determining the line loss of the antenna system
G4B13 (A)
What information could a noise bridge directly provide
about an unknown length and type of transmission line?
A. Its characteristic impedance
B. Its velocity factor
C. Its loss in dB per 100-feet
D. Its reflection coefficient
[G4B14 - This question has been formally withdrawn by
the QPC. It will not be used on tests.]
G4B14 (B)
How would you connect an oscilloscope to an AM or SSB
transmitter to check transmitter modulation using double
trapezoidal patterns?
A. Couple the detected RF output signal to the vertical
plates; set the internal sweep to twice the modulating
frequency
B. Couple the RF output signal to the vertical plates and
external trigger; set the internal sweep to twice the
modulating frequency
C. Couple the RF output signal to the vertical plates;
apply the unmodulated RF drive signal to the horizontal
plates
D. Couple the detected RF output signal to the vertical
plates; apply a constant DC signal to the horizontal plates
G4C Audio rectification in consumer electronics; RF ground
G4C01 (B)
What devices would you install in home-entertainment
systems to reduce or eliminate audio-frequency
interference?
A. Bypass inductors
B. Bypass capacitors
C. Metal-oxide varistors
D. Bypass resistors
G4C02 (B)
What should be done if a properly operating amateur station
is the cause of interference to a nearby telephone?
A. Make internal adjustments to the telephone equipment
B. Install RFI filters at the affected telephone
C. Stop transmitting whenever the telephone is in use
D. Ground and shield the local telephone distribution
amplifier
G4C03 (C)
What sound is heard from a public-address system if audio
rectification of a nearby single-sideband phone
transmission occurs?
A. A steady hum whenever the transmitter's carrier is on
the air
B. On-and-off humming or clicking
C. Distorted speech from the transmitter's signals
D. Clearly audible speech from the transmitter's signals
G4C04 (A)
What sound is heard from a public-address system if audio
rectification of a nearby CW transmission occurs?
A. On-and-off humming or clicking
B. Audible, possibly distorted speech
C. Muffled, severely distorted speech
D. A steady whistling
G4C05 (D)
If your third-floor amateur station has a ground wire
running 33 feet down to a ground rod, why might you get an
RF burn if you touch the front panel of your HF
transceiver?
A. Because the ground rod is not making good contact with
moist earth
B. Because the transceiver's heat-sensing circuit is not
working to start the cooling fan
C. Because of a bad antenna connection, allowing the RF
energy to take an easier path out of the transceiver
through you
D. Because the ground wire is a resonant length on
several HF bands and acts more like an antenna than an RF
ground connection
G4C06 (A)
Which of the following is NOT an important reason to have a
good station ground?
A. To reduce the cost of operating a station
B. To reduce electrical noise
C. To reduce interference
D. To reduce the possibility of electric shock
G4C07 (A)
What is one good way to avoid stray RF energy in your
amateur station?
A. Keep the station's ground wire as short as possible
B. Use a beryllium ground wire for best conductivity
C. Drive the ground rod at least 14 feet into the ground
D. Make a couple of loops in the ground wire where it
connects to your station
G4C08 (B)
Which of the following statements about station grounding
is NOT true?
A. Braid from RG-213 coaxial cable makes a good conductor
to tie station equipment together into a station ground
B. Only transceivers and power amplifiers need to be tied
into a station ground
C. According to the National Electrical Code, there
should be only one grounding system in a building
D. The minimum length for a good ground rod is 8 feet
G4C09 (C)
Which of the following statements about station grounding
is true?
A. The chassis of each piece of station equipment should
be tied together with high-impedance conductors
B. If the chassis of all station equipment is connected
with a good conductor, there is no need to tie them to an
earth ground
C. RF hot spots can occur in a station located above the
ground floor if the equipment is grounded by a long ground
wire
D. A ground loop is an effective way to ground station
equipment
G4C10 (D)
Which of the following is NOT covered in the National
Electrical Code?
A. Minimum conductor sizes for different lengths of
amateur antennas
B. The size and composition of grounding conductors
C. Electrical safety inside the ham shack
D. The RF exposure limits of the human body
G4C11 (A)
What can cause the unintended rectification of an RF
signal?
A. Induced currents in conductors that are in poor
electrical contact
B. Induced voltages in conductors that are in good
electrical contact
C. Capacitive coupling of the RF signal to ground
D. Excessive standing wave ratio (SWR) of the
transmission line system
G4C12 (C)
What is one cause of severe, broadband radio frequency
noise at an amateur radio station?
A. Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced
antennas
B. Lack of rectification of the transmitter's signal in
power conductors
C. An intermittent RF ground
D. The use of horizontal, rather than vertical antennas
G4C13 (D)
How can a ground loop be avoided?
A. Series connect ("daisy chain") all ground conductors
B. Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
C. Avoid using lockwashers and star washers in making
ground connections
D. Connect all ground conductors to a single point
G4D Speech processors; PEP calculations; wire sizes and
fuses
G4D01 (D)
What is the reason for using a properly adjusted speech
processor with a single-sideband phone transmitter?
A. It reduces average transmitter power requirements
B. It reduces unwanted noise pickup from the microphone
C. It improves voice-frequency fidelity
D. It improves signal intelligibility at the receiver
G4D02 (B)
If a single-sideband phone transmitter is 100% modulated,
what will a speech processor do to the transmitter's power?
A. It will increase the output PEP
B. It will add nothing to the output PEP
C. It will decrease the peak power output
D. It will decrease the average power output
G4D03 (A)
What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an
oscilloscope measures 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-
ohm resistor connected to the transmitter output?
A. 100 watts
B. 200 watts
C. 400 watts
D. 1000 watts
G4D04 (B)
What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an
oscilloscope measures 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-
ohm resistor connected to the transmitter output?
A. 500 watts
B. 625 watts
C. 1250 watts
D. 2500 watts
G4D05 (B)
What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier
transmitter if an average-reading wattmeter connected to
the transmitter output indicates 1060 watts?
A. 530 watts
B. 1060 watts
C. 1500 watts
D. 2120 watts
G4D06 (A)
Which wires in a four-conductor line cord should be
attached to fuses in a 240-VAC primary (single phase) power
supply?
A. Only the "hot" (black and red) wires
B. Only the "neutral" (white) wire
C. Only the ground (bare) wire
D. All wires
G4D07 (D)
What size wire is normally used on a 20-ampere, 120-VAC
household appliance circuit?
A. AWG number 20
B. AWG number 16
C. AWG number 14
D. AWG number 12
G4D08 (D)
What maximum size fuse or circuit breaker should be used in
a household appliance circuit using AWG number 12 wiring?
A. 100 amperes
B. 60 amperes
C. 30 amperes
D. 20 amperes
G4D09 (C)
What operating benefit does properly adjusted speech
clipping provide?
A. It removes any distortion in the audio waveform
B. Deep clipping restores the natural sound of the audio
C. It prevents overdriving the transmitter's modulator
stage
D. It removes any AC hum and noise that might be in the
audio
G4D10 (B)
What would be the voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load
dissipating 1200 watts?
A. 173 volts
B. 245 volts
C. 346 volts
D. 692 volts
G4E Common connectors used in amateur stations: types;
when to use; fastening methods; precautions when using; HF
mobile radio installations; emergency power systems;
generators; battery storage devices and charging sources
including solar; wind generation
G4E01 (B)
Which of the following connectors is NOT designed for RF
transmission lines?
A. PL-259
B. DB-25
C. Type N
D. BNC
G4E02 (D)
When installing a power plug on a line cord, which of the
following should you do?
A. Twist the wire strands neatly and fasten them so they
don't cause a short circuit
B. Observe the correct wire color conventions for plug
terminals
C. Use proper grounding techniques
D. All of these choices
G4E03 (A)
Which of the following power connections would be the best
for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?
A. A direct, fused connection to the battery using heavy
gauge wire
B. A connection to the fuse-protected accessory terminal
strip or distribution panel
C. A connection to the cigarette lighter
D. A direct connection to the alternator or generator
G4E04 (B)
Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100-watt HF
transceiver from an automobile's cigarette lighter socket?
A. The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power
cable
B. The socket's wiring may not be adequate for the
current being drawn by the transceiver
C. The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the
polarity of modern HF transceivers
D. The power from the socket is never adequately filtered
for HF transceiver operation
G4E05 (C)
Which of the following most limits the effectiveness of an
HF mobile transceiver operating in the 75-meter band?
A. The vehicle's electrical system wiring
B. The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
C. The HF mobile antenna system
D. The rating of the vehicle's alternator or generator
G4E06 (D)
Which of the following is true of both a permanent or
temporary emergency generator installation?
A. The generator should be located in a well ventilated
area
B. The installation should be grounded
C. Extra fuel supplies, especially gasoline, should not
be stored in an inhabited area
D. All of these choices
G4E07 (C)
Which of the following is true of a lead-acid storage
battery as it is being charged?
A. It tends to cool off
B. It gives off explosive oxygen gas
C. It gives off explosive hydrogen gas
D. It takes in oxygen from the surrounding air
G4E08 (A)
What is the name of the process by which sunlight is
directly changed into electricity?
A. Photovoltaic conversion
B. Photosensitive conduction
C. Photosynthesis
D. Photocoupling
G4E09 (B)
What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a modern,
well illuminated photovoltaic cell?
A. 0.02 VDC
B. 0.5 VDC
C. 0.2 VDC
D. 1.38 VDC
G4E10 (A)
What determines the proper size solar panel to use in a
solar-powered battery-charging circuit?
A. The panel's voltage rating and maximum output current
B. The amount of voltage available per square inch of
panel
C. The panel's open-circuit current
D. The panel's short-circuit voltage
G4E11 (C)
What is the biggest disadvantage to using wind power as the
primary source of power for an emergency station?
A. The conversion efficiency from mechanical energy to
electrical energy is less that 2 percent
B. The voltage and current ratings of such systems are
not compatible with amateur equipment
C. A large electrical storage system is needed to supply
power when the wind is not blowing
D. All of these choices are correct
G4E12 (A)
What type of coaxial connector would be a good choice to
use for 10 GHz feed-line connections?
A. Type N
B. Type BNC
C. Type UHF
D. Type F
G4E13 (A)
Where should you avoid placing a gasoline-fueled generator
to power your station?
A. Inside a building or outside an open window
B. Close to cold water pipes or other grounded metal
objects
C. Close to a driven ground
D. Downwind from your station
G4E14 (D)
What safety precaution should you observe when using a
gasoline-fueled generator to power your home station?
A. Always ground the frame of the generator
B. Use only generators that produce a clean sine wave
output
C. Make sure that the engine is well lubricated
D. All of these choices are correct
G4E15 (D)
During a commercial power outage, why would it be unwise to
back feed the output of a gasoline generator into your
house wiring by connecting the generator through an AC wall
outlet?
A. It presents a hazard for electric company workers
B. You may draw too much current, overloading your
generator
C. Power may be restored to your house, damaging your
generator
D. All of these choices are correct
SUBELEMENT G5 -- ELECTRICAL PRINCIPLES [2 Exam Questions --
2 Groups]
G5A Impedance, including matching; resistance, including
ohm; reactance; inductance; capacitance; and metric
divisions of these values
G5A01 (C)
What is impedance?
A. The electric charge stored by a capacitor
B. The opposition to the flow of AC in a circuit
containing only capacitance
C. The opposition to the flow of AC in a circuit
D. The force of repulsion between one electric field and
another with the same charge
G5A02 (B)
What is reactance?
A. Opposition to DC caused by resistors
B. Opposition to AC caused by inductors and capacitors
C. A property of ideal resistors in AC circuits
D. A large spark produced at switch contacts when an
inductor is de-energized
G5A03 (D)
In an inductor, what causes opposition to the flow of AC?
A. Resistance
B. Reluctance
C. Admittance
D. Reactance
G5A04 (C)
In a capacitor, what causes opposition to the flow of AC?
A. Resistance
B. Reluctance
C. Reactance
D. Admittance
G5A05 (D)
How does a coil react to AC?
A. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the
reactance decreases
B. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the
reactance increases
C. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the
reactance decreases
D. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the
reactance increases
G5A06 (A)
How does a capacitor react to AC?
A. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the
reactance decreases
B. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the
reactance increases
C. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the
reactance increases
D. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the
reactance decreases
G5A07 (D)
What happens when the impedance of an electrical load is
equal to the internal impedance of the power source?
A. The source delivers minimum power to the load
B. The electrical load is shorted
C. No current can flow through the circuit
D. The source delivers maximum power to the load
G5A08 (A)
Why is impedance matching important?
A. So the source can deliver maximum power to the load
B. So the load will draw minimum power from the source
C. To ensure that there is less resistance than reactance
in the circuit
D. To ensure that the resistance and reactance in the
circuit are equal
G5A09 (B)
What unit is used to measure reactance?
A. Mho
B. Ohm
C. Ampere
D. Siemens
G5A10 (B)
What unit is used to measure impedance?
A. Volt
B. Ohm
C. Ampere
D. Watt
G5A11 (A)
Why should core saturation of a conventional impedance
matching transformer be avoided?
A. Harmonics and distortion could result from saturation
B. Magnetic flux would increase with frequency
C. RF susceptance would increase
D. Temporary changes of the core permeability could
result from saturation
G5B Decibel; Ohm's Law; current and voltage dividers;
electrical power calculations and series and parallel
components; transformers (either voltage or impedance);
sine wave root-mean-square (RMS) value
G5B01 (B)
A two-times increase in power results in a change of how
many dB?
A. 1 dB higher
B. 3 dB higher
C. 6 dB higher
D. 12 dB higher
G5B02 (B)
In a parallel circuit with a voltage source and several
branch resistors, how is the total current related to the
current in the branch resistors?
A. It equals the average of the branch current through
each resistor
B. It equals the sum of the branch current through each
resistor
C. It decreases as more parallel resistors are added to
the circuit
D. It is the sum of each resistor's voltage drop
multiplied by the total number of resistors
G5B03 (B)
How many watts of electrical power are used if 400 VDC is
supplied to an 800-ohm load?
A. 0.5 watts
B. 200 watts
C. 400 watts
D. 320,000 watts
G5B04 (D)
How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12-VDC
light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?
A. 60 watts
B. 24 watts
C. 6 watts
D. 2.4 watts
G5B05 (A)
How many watts are being dissipated when 7.0 milliamperes
flow through 1.25 kilohms?
A. Approximately 61 milliwatts
B. Approximately 39 milliwatts
C. Approximately 11 milliwatts
D. Approximately 9 milliwatts
G5B06 (C)
What is the voltage across a 500-turn secondary winding in
a transformer if the 2250-turn primary is connected to 120
VAC?
A. 2370 volts
B. 540 volts
C. 26.7 volts
D. 5.9 volts
G5B07 (A)
What is the turns ratio of a transformer to match an audio
amplifier having a 600-ohm output impedance to a speaker
having a 4-ohm impedance?
A. 12.2 to 1
B. 24.4 to 1
C. 150 to 1
D. 300 to 1
G5B08 (B)
A DC voltage equal to what value of an applied sine-wave AC
voltage would produce the same amount of heat over time in
a resistive element?
A. The peak-to-peak value
B. The RMS value
C. The average value
D. The peak value
G5B09 (D)
What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave that has an
RMS voltage of 120 volts?
A. 84.8 volts
B. 169.7 volts
C. 204.8 volts
D. 339.4 volts
G5B10 (B)
A sine wave of 17 volts peak is equivalent to how many
volts RMS?
A. 8.5 volts
B. 12 volts
C. 24 volts
D. 34 volts
[G4B11 - This question has been formally withdrawn by the QPC.
It will not be used on tests.]
G5B11 (A)
What would be the RMS voltage if you combined two or more
sine wave voltages?
A. The square root of the average of the sum of the
squares of each voltage waveform
B. The sum of the RMS values for each voltage waveform
C. The sum of the average values for each waveform
D. The square of the sum of the average value for each
waveform
G5B12 (C)
What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary
winding of a transformer when a voltage source is connected
across its primary winding?
A. Capacitive coupling
B. Displacement current coupling
C. Mutual inductance
D. Mutual capacitance
G5B13 (A)
What would be the capacitance and voltage rating of a
series circuit consisting of two equal value capacitors
with equal voltage ratings?
A. Total capacitance would be half that of each capacitor
and maximum voltage would be twice that of each capacitor
B. Total capacitance would be half that of each capacitor
and maximum voltage would be the same as each capacitor
C. Total capacitance and maximum voltage would be the
same as each capacitor
D. Total capacitance and maximum voltage would be half
that of each capacitor
G5B14 (D)
What percentage loss would result from a transmission line
loss of 1 dB?
A. 16.6%
B. 12.5%
C. 14.7%
D. 20.6%
G5B15 (C)
If three equal resistors in parallel produce 50-ohms of
resistance and the same resistors in series produce 450-
ohms, what is the value of each resistor?
A. 1500-ohms
B. 90-ohms
C. 150-ohms
D. 175-ohms
SUBELEMENT G6 -- CIRCUIT COMPONENTS [1 exam question -- 1
group]
G6A Resistors; capacitors; inductors; rectifiers and
transistors; etc.
G6A01 (C)
If a carbon resistor's temperature is increased, what will
happen to the resistance?
A. It will increase by 20% for every 10 degrees
centigrade
B. It will stay the same
C. It will change depending on the resistor's temperature
coefficient rating
D. It will become time dependent
G6A02 (D)
What type of capacitor is often used in power-supply
circuits to filter the rectified AC?
A. Disc ceramic
B. Vacuum variable
C. Mica
D. Electrolytic
G6A03 (D)
What function does a capacitor serve if it is used in a
power-supply circuit to filter transient voltage spikes
across the transformer's secondary winding?
A. Clipper capacitor
B. Trimmer capacitor
C. Feedback capacitor
D. Suppressor capacitor
G6A04 (B)
Where is the source of energy connected in a transformer?
A. To the secondary winding
B. To the primary winding
C. To the core
D. To the plates
G6A05 (A)
If no load is attached to the secondary winding of a
transformer, what is current in the primary winding called?
A. Magnetizing current
B. Direct current
C. Excitation current
D. Stabilizing current
G6A06 (C)
What is the peak-inverse-voltage rating of a power-supply
rectifier?
A. The maximum transient voltage the rectifier will
handle in the conducting direction
B. 1.4 times the AC frequency
C. The maximum voltage the rectifier will handle in the
non-conducting direction
D. 2.8 times the AC frequency
G6A07 (A)
What are the two major ratings that must not be exceeded
for silicon-diode rectifiers used in power-supply circuits?
A. Peak inverse voltage; average forward current
B. Average power; average voltage
C. Capacitive reactance; avalanche voltage
D. Peak load impedance; peak voltage
G6A08 (A)
What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave
rectifier connected to a resistive load?
A. A series of pulses at twice the frequency of the AC
input
B. A series of pulses at the same frequency as the AC
input
C. A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
D. A steady DC voltage
G6A09 (B)
A half-wave rectifier conducts during how many degrees of
each cycle?
A. 90 degrees
B. 180 degrees
C. 270 degrees
D. 360 degrees
G6A10 (D)
A full-wave rectifier conducts during how many degrees of
each cycle?
A. 90 degrees
B. 180 degrees
C. 270 degrees
D. 360 degrees
G6A11 (C)
When two or more diodes are connected in parallel to
increase the current-handling capacity of a power supply,
what is the purpose of the resistor connected in series
with each diode?
A. The resistors ensure the thermal stability of the
power supply
B. The resistors regulate the power supply output voltage
C. The resistors ensure that one diode doesn't take most
of the current
D. The resistors act as swamping resistors in the circuit
G6A12 (B)
Why would it not be a good idea to use a wire-wound
resistor in a resonant circuit?
A. The resistor's tolerance value would not be adequate
for such a circuit
B. The resistor's inductance would detune the circuit
C. The resistor would overheat
D. The resistor's internal capacitance would detune the
circuit
G6A13 (D)
What is an advantage of ferrite toroidal inductors?
A. Large values of inductance may be obtained
B. The inductor may be used in applications where core
saturation is desirable
C. Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
D. All of these choices are correct
G6A14 (A)
Where would be the stable operating points for a bipolar
transistor that is used as a switch in a logic circuit?
A. In its saturation and cut-off regions
B. In its active region (between cut-off and saturation
regions)
C. Between its peak and valley current points
D. Between its enhancement and deletion modes
G6A15 (C)
How should two solenoid inductors be placed so as to
minimize their mutual inductance?
A. In line with their winding axis
B. With their winding axis parallel to each other
C. At right angles to their winding axis
D. Within the same shielded enclosure
G6A16 (B)
Why might it be important to minimize the mutual inductance
between two inductors?
A. To increase the energy transfer between both circuits
B. To reduce or eliminate stray coupling between RF
stages
C. To reduce conducted emissions
D. To increase the self-resonant frequency of both
inductors
SUBELEMENT G7 -- PRACTICAL CIRCUITS [1 exam question -- 1
group]
G7A Power supplies and filters; single-sideband
transmitters and receivers
G7A01 (B)
What safety feature does a power-supply bleeder resistor
provide?
A. It does not affect voltage regulation
B. It discharges the filter capacitors
C. It removes shock hazards from the induction coils
D. It eliminates ground-loop current
G7A02 (D)
What components are used in a power-supply filter network?
A. Diodes
B. Transformers and transistors
C. Quartz crystals
D. Capacitors and inductors
G7A03 (C)
What should be the minimum peak-inverse-voltage rating of
the rectifier in a full-wave power supply?
A. One-quarter the normal output voltage of the power
supply
B. Half the normal output voltage of the power supply
C. Double the normal peak output voltage of the power
supply
D. Equal to the normal output voltage of the power supply
G7A04 (D)
What should be the minimum peak-inverse-voltage rating of
the rectifier in a half-wave power supply?
A. One-quarter to one-half the normal peak output voltage
of the power supply
B. Half the normal output voltage of the power supply
C. Equal to the normal output voltage of the power supply
D. One to two times the normal peak output voltage of the
power supply
G7A05 (B)
What should be the impedance of a low-pass filter as
compared to the impedance of the transmission line into
which it is inserted?
A. Substantially higher
B. About the same
C. Substantially lower
D. Twice the transmission line impedance
G7A06 (B)
In a typical single-sideband phone transmitter, what
circuit processes signals from the balanced modulator and
sends signals to the mixer?
A. Carrier oscillator
B. Filter
C. IF amplifier
D. RF amplifier
G7A07 (D)
In a single-sideband phone transmitter, what circuit
processes signals from the carrier oscillator and the
speech amplifier and sends signals to the filter?
A. Mixer
B. Detector
C. IF amplifier
D. Balanced modulator
G7A08 (C)
In a single-sideband phone superheterodyne receiver, what
circuit processes signals from the RF amplifier and the
local oscillator and sends signals to the IF filter?
A. Balanced modulator
B. IF amplifier
C. Mixer
D. Detector
G7A09 (D)
In a single-sideband phone superheterodyne receiver, what
circuit processes signals from the IF amplifier and the BFO
and sends signals to the AF amplifier?
A. RF oscillator
B. IF filter
C. Balanced modulator
D. Detector
G7A10 (A)
What type of power supply circuit is often used to provide
overvoltage protection at its output?
A. Crowbar
B. Circuit breaker
C. Ferrite transformer
D. Buck-out transistor
G7A11 (A)
What type of capacitors should be used to filter the
rectified DC output of a switching power supply?
A. Capacitors with low equivalent series resistance
B. Ordinary, large value electrolytic capacitors
C. NPO-type ceramic disc or silver mica capacitors
D. Capacitors with high equivalent series inductance
G7A12 (C)
Which of the following is an advantage of a switched-mode
power supply as compared to a linear power supply?
A. Higher output voltages are possible with the switchedmode
supply
B. Fewer circuit components are required for the
switched-mode supply
C. The relatively high frequency power oscillator allows
the use of small, lightweight and low-cost transformers in
the switched-mode supply
D. All of these choices are correct
G7A13 (A)
In a switched-mode power supply, what is the first step in
converting the 120 volt AC input voltage to a 12 volt DC
output voltage?
A. The 120 volt AC is first rectified and filtered
B. The 120 volt AC is first converted to 12 volt AC with
a transformer
C. The 120 volt AC is switched off when the waveform
exceeds 12 volts, and is switched on again when the
waveform drops below 12 volts
D. An AC clamp is used to limit the input signal to no
more than 20 volts DC
SUBELEMENT G8 -- SIGNALS AND EMISSIONS [2 Exam Questions --
2 Groups]
G8A Signal information; AM; FM; single and double sideband
and carrier; bandwidth; modulation envelope; deviation;
overmodulation
G8A01 (D)
What type of modulation system changes the amplitude of an
RF wave for the purpose of conveying information?
A. Frequency modulation
B. Phase modulation
C. Amplitude-rectification modulation
D. Amplitude modulation
G8A02 (B)
What type of modulation system changes the phase of an RF
wave for the purpose of conveying information?
A. Pulse modulation
B. Phase modulation
C. Phase-rectification modulation
D. Amplitude modulation
G8A03 (D)
What type of modulation system changes the frequency of an
RF wave for the purpose of conveying information?
A. Phase-rectification modulation
B. Frequency-rectification modulation
C. Amplitude modulation
D. Frequency modulation
G8A04 (B)
What emission is produced by a reactance modulator
connected to an RF power amplifier?
A. Multiplex modulation
B. Phase modulation
C. Amplitude modulation
D. Pulse modulation
G8A05 (D)
In what emission type does the instantaneous amplitude
(envelope) of the RF signal vary in accordance with the
modulating audio?
A. Frequency shift keying
B. Pulse modulation
C. Frequency modulation
D. Amplitude modulation
[G8A06 - This question has been formally withdrawn by the QPC.
It will not be used on tests.]
G8A06 (C)
How much should the carrier be suppressed below peak output
power in a properly designed single-sideband (SSB)
transmitter?
A. No more than 20 dB
B. No more than 30 dB
C. At least 40 dB
D. At least 60 dB
G8A07 (C)
What is one advantage of carrier suppression in a doublesideband
phone transmission?
A. Only half the bandwidth is required for the same
information content
B. Greater modulation percentage is obtainable with lower
distortion
C. More power can be put into the sidebands
D. Simpler equipment can be used to receive a doublesideband
suppressed-carrier signal
G8A08 (A)
Which popular phone emission uses the narrowest frequency
bandwidth?
A. Single-sideband
B. Double-sideband
C. Phase-modulated
D. Frequency-modulated
G8A09 (D)
What happens to the signal of an overmodulated singlesideband
or double-sideband phone transmitter?
A. It becomes louder with no other effects
B. It occupies less bandwidth with poor high-frequency
response
C. It has higher fidelity and improved signal-to-noise
ratio
D. It becomes distorted and occupies more bandwidth
G8A10 (B)
How should the microphone gain control be adjusted on a
single-sideband phone transmitter?
A. For full deflection of the ALC meter on modulation
peaks
B. For slight movement of the ALC meter on modulation
peaks
C. For 100% frequency deviation on modulation peaks
D. For a dip in plate current
G8A11 (C)
What is meant by flattopping in a single-sideband phone
transmission?
A. Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector
current
B. The transmitter's automatic level control is properly
adjusted
C. Signal distortion caused by excessive drive
D. The transmitter's carrier is properly suppressed
G8A12 (A)
What happens to the RF carrier signal when a modulating
audio signal is applied to an FM transmitter?
A. The carrier frequency changes proportionally to the
instantaneous amplitude of the modulating signal
B. The carrier frequency changes proportionally to the
amplitude and frequency of the modulating signal
C. The carrier amplitude changes proportionally to the
instantaneous frequency of the modulating signal
D. The carrier phase changes proportionally to the
instantaneous amplitude of the modulating signal
G8A13 (A)
What signal(s) would be found at the output of a properly
adjusted balanced modulator?
A. Both upper and lower sidebands
B. Either upper or lower sideband, but not both
C. Both upper and lower sidebands and the carrier
D. The modulating signal and the unmodulated carrier
G8B Frequency mixing; multiplication; bandwidths; HF data
communications
G8B01 (A)
What receiver stage combines a 14.25-MHz input signal with
a 13.795-MHz oscillator signal to produce a 455-kHz
intermediate frequency (IF) signal?
A. Mixer
B. BFO
C. VFO
D. Multiplier
G8B02 (B)
If a receiver mixes a 13.800-MHz VFO with a 14.255-MHz
received signal to produce a 455-kHz intermediate frequency
(IF) signal, what type of interference will a 13.345-MHz
signal produce in the receiver?
A. Local oscillator
B. Image response
C. Mixer interference
D. Intermediate interference
G8B03 (A)
What stage in a transmitter would change a 5.3-MHz input
signal to 14.3 MHz?
A. A mixer
B. A beat frequency oscillator
C. A frequency multiplier
D. A linear translator
G8B04 (D)
What is the name of the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that
selects a harmonic of an HF signal to reach the desired
operating frequency?
A. Mixer
B. Reactance modulator
C. Preemphasis network
D. Multiplier
G8B05 (C)
Why isn't frequency modulated (FM) phone used below 29.5
MHz?
A. The transmitter efficiency for this mode is low
B. Harmonics could not be attenuated to practical levels
C. The bandwidth would exceed FCC limits
D. The frequency stability would not be adequate
G8B06 (D)
What is the total bandwidth of an FM-phone transmission
having a 5-kHz deviation and a 3-kHz modulating frequency?
A. 3 kHz
B. 5 kHz
C. 8 kHz
D. 16 kHz
G8B07 (B)
What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21-MHz reactancemodulated
oscillator in a 5-kHz deviation, 146.52-MHz FMphone
transmitter?
A. 41.67 Hz
B. 416.7 Hz
C. 5 kHz
D. 12 kHz
G8B08 (C)
How is frequency shift related to keying speed in an FSK
signal?
A. The frequency shift in hertz must be at least four
times the keying speed in WPM
B. The frequency shift must not exceed 15 Hz per WPM of
keying speed
C. Greater keying speeds require greater frequency shifts
D. Greater keying speeds require smaller frequency shifts
G8B09 (B)
What do RTTY, Morse code, PSK31 and packet communications
have in common?
A. They are multipath communications
B. They are digital communications
C. They are analog communications
D. They are only for emergency communications
G8B10 (B)
When sending data modes, why is it important to know the
duty cycle of the mode you are using?
A. Your connectors, feed line or antenna may be rated for
intermittent amateur service
B. To prevent damage to your transmitter's final output
stage due to its inability to dissipate excess heat
C. To prevent blowing your power supply's fuse due to its
inability to dissipate excess heat
D. All of these choices are correct
G8B11 (D)
In what segment of the 20-meter band are most PSK31
operations found?
A. At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230
MHz
B. At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz
C. In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
D. Below the RTTY segment, near 14.070 MHz
G8B12 (A) [97.303s]
What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for
amateur radio stations when operating on USB frequencies in
the 60-meter band?
A. 2.8 kHz
B. 5.6 kHz
C. +/- 2.8 kHz
D. 3 kHz
G8B13 (A)
What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?
A. Heterodyning
B. Synthesizing
C. Cancellation
D. Multiplying
SUBELEMENT G9 -- ANTENNAS AND FEED-LINES [4 Exam Questions
-- 4 Groups]
G9A Yagi antennas - physical dimensions; impedance
matching; radiation patterns; directivity and major lobes
G9A01 (A)
When designing a Yagi antenna, how can the SWR bandwidth be
increased?
A. Use larger diameter elements
B. Use closer element spacing
C. Use traps on the elements
D. Use tapered-diameter elements
G9A02 (B)
Approximately how long is the driven element of a Yagi
antenna for 14.0 MHz?
A. 17 feet
B. 33 feet
C. 35 feet
D. 66 feet
G9A03 (B)
Approximately how long is the director element of a Yagi
antenna for 21.1 MHz?
A. 42 feet
B. 21 feet
C. 17 feet
D. 10.5 feet
G9A04 (C)
Approximately how long is the reflector element of a Yagi
antenna for 28.1 MHz?
A. 8.75 feet
B. 16.6 feet
C. 17.5 feet
D. 35 feet
G9A05 (B)
Which statement about a three-element Yagi antenna is true?
A. The reflector is normally the shortest parasitic
element
B. The director is normally the shortest parasitic
element
C. The driven element is the longest parasitic element
D. Low feed-point impedance increases bandwidth
G9A06 (A)
What is one effect of increasing the boom length and adding
directors to a Yagi antenna?
A. Gain increases
B. SWR increases
C. Weight decreases
D. Wind load decreases
G9A07 (C)
Why is a Yagi antenna often used for radio communications
on the 20-meter band?
A. It provides excellent omnidirectional coverage in the
horizontal Plane
B. It is smaller, less expensive and easier to erect than
a dipole or vertical antenna
C. It helps reduce interference from other stations off
to the side or behind
D. It provides the highest possible angle of radiation
for the HF bands
G9A08 (C)
What does "antenna front-to-back ratio" mean in reference
to a Yagi antenna?
A. The number of directors versus the number of
reflectors
B. The relative position of the driven element with
respect to the reflectors and directors
C. The power radiated in the major radiation lobe
compared to the power radiated in exactly the opposite
direction
D. The power radiated in the major radiation lobe
compared to the power radiated 90 degrees away from that
direction
G9A09 (D)
What is the "main lobe" of a Yagi antenna radiation
pattern?
A. The direction of least radiation from the antenna
B. The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna
element
C. The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating
element
D. The direction of maximum radiated field strength from
the antenna
G9A10 (A)
What is a good way to get maximum performance from a Yagi
antenna?
A. Optimize the lengths and spacing of the elements
B. Use RG-58 feed-line
C. Use a reactance bridge to measure the antenna
performance from each direction around the antenna
D. Avoid using towers higher than 30 feet above the
ground
G9A11 (D)
Which of the following is NOT a Yagi antenna design
variable that should be considered to optimize the forward
gain, front-to-rear ratio and SWR bandwidth?
A. The physical length of the boom
B. The number of elements on the boom
C. The spacing of each element along the boom
D. The polarization of the antenna elements
G9B Loop antennas - physical dimensions; impedance
matching; radiation patterns; directivity and major lobes
G9B01 (B)
Approximately how long is each side of a cubical-quad
antenna driven element for 21.4 MHz?
A. 1.17 feet
B. 11.7 feet
C. 47 feet
D. 469 feet
G9B02 (A)
Approximately how long is each side of a cubical-quad
antenna driven element for 14.3 MHz?
A. 17.6 feet
B. 23.4 feet
C. 70.3 feet
D. 175 feet
G9B03 (B)
Approximately how long is each side of a cubical-quad
antenna reflector element for 29.6 MHz?
A. 8.23 feet
B. 8.7 feet
C. 9.7 feet
D. 34.8 feet
G9B04 (B)
Approximately how long is each leg of a symmetrical deltaloop
antenna driven element for 28.7 MHz?
A. 8.75 feet
B. 11.7 feet
C. 23.4 feet
D. 35 feet
G9B05 (C)
Approximately how long is each leg of a symmetrical deltaloop
antenna driven element for 24.9 MHz?
A. 10.99 feet
B. 12.95 feet
C. 13.45 feet
D. 40.36 feet
G9B06 (C)
Approximately how long is each leg of a symmetrical deltaloop
antenna reflector element for 14.1 MHz?
A. 18.26 feet
B. 23.76 feet
C. 24.35 feet
D. 73.05 feet
G9B07 (A)
Which statement about two-element quad antennas is true?
A. They compare favorably with a three-element Yagi
B. They perform poorly above HF
C. They perform very well only at HF
D. They are effective only when constructed using
insulated wire
G9B08 (D)
Compared to a dipole antenna, what are the directional
radiation characteristics of a cubical-quad antenna?
A. The quad has more directivity in the horizontal plane
but less directivity in the vertical plane
B. The quad has less directivity in the horizontal plane
but more directivity in the vertical plane
C. The quad has less directivity in both horizontal and
vertical planes
D. The quad has more directivity in both horizontal and
vertical planes
G9B09 (D)
Moving the feed point of a multielement quad antenna from a
side parallel to the ground to a side perpendicular to the
ground will have what effect?
A. It will significantly increase the antenna feed-point
impedance
B. It will significantly decrease the antenna feed-point
impedance
C. It will change the antenna polarization from vertical
to horizontal
D. It will change the antenna polarization from
horizontal to vertical
G9B10 (D)
What does the term "antenna front-to-back ratio" mean in
reference to a cubical-quad antenna?
A. The number of directors versus the number of
reflectors
B. The relative position of the driven element with
respect to the reflectors and directors
C. The power radiated in the major radiation lobe
compared to the power radiated 90 degrees away from that
direction
D. The power radiated in the major radiation lobe
compared to the power radiated in exactly the opposite
direction
G9B11 (C)
What is the "main lobe" of a cubical-quad antenna radiation
pattern?
A. The direction of least radiation from an antenna
B. The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna
element
C. The direction of maximum radiated field strength from
the antenna
D. The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating
element
G9C Random wire antennas - physical dimensions; impedance
matching; radiation patterns; directivity and major lobes;
feed point impedance of 1/2-wavelength dipole and 1/4-
wavelength vertical antennas
G9C01 (A)
What type of multiband transmitting antenna does NOT
require a feed-line?
A. An end-fed random-wire antenna
B. A triband Yagi antenna
C. A delta-loop antenna
D. A Beverage antenna
G9C02 (D)
What is one advantage of using a random-wire antenna?
A. It is more efficient than any other kind of antenna
B. It will keep RF energy out of your station
C. It doesn't need an impedance matching network
D. It is a multiband antenna
G9C03 (B)
What is one disadvantage of a random-wire antenna?
A. It must be longer than 1 wavelength
B. You may experience RF feedback in your station
C. It usually produces vertically polarized radiation
D. You must use an inverted-T matching network for
multiband operation
G9C04 (D)
What is an advantage of downward sloping radials on a
ground-plane antenna?
A. It lowers the radiation angle
B. It brings the feed-point impedance closer to 300 ohms
C. It increases the radiation angle
D. It brings the feed-point impedance closer to 50 ohms
G9C05 (B)
What happens to the feed-point impedance of a ground-plane
antenna when its radials are changed from horizontal to
downward-sloping?
A. It decreases
B. It increases
C. It stays the same
D. It approaches zero
G9C06 (A)
What is the low-angle radiation pattern of an ideal halfwavelength
dipole HF antenna installed a half-wavelength
high, parallel to the earth?
A. It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
B. It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
C. It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
D. It is two smaller lobes on one side of the antenna,
and one larger lobe on the other side
G9C07 (C)
How does antenna height affect the horizontal (azimuthal)
radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna?
A. If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes
unpredictable
B. Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
C. If the antenna is less than one-half wavelength high,
the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
D. If the antenna is less than one-half wavelength high,
radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated
G9C08 (D)
If the horizontal radiation pattern of an antenna shows a
major lobe at 0 degrees and a minor lobe at 180 degrees,
how would you describe the radiation pattern of this
antenna?
A. Most of the signal would be radiated towards 180
degrees and a smaller amount would be radiated towards 0
degrees
B. Almost no signal would be radiated towards 0 degrees
and a small amount would be radiated towards 180 degrees
C. Almost all the signal would be radiated equally
towards 0 degrees and 180 degrees
D. Most of the signal would be radiated towards 0 degrees
and a smaller amount would be radiated towards 180 degrees
G9C09 (D)
If a slightly shorter parasitic element is placed 0.1
wavelength away and parallel to an HF dipole antenna
mounted above ground, what effect will this have on the
antenna's radiation pattern?
A. The radiation pattern will not be affected
B. A major lobe will develop in the horizontal plane,
parallel to the two elements
C. A major lobe will develop in the vertical plane, away
from the ground
D. A major lobe will develop in the horizontal plane,
toward the parasitic element
G9C10 (B)
If a slightly longer parasitic element is placed 0.1
wavelength away and parallel to an HF dipole antenna
mounted above ground, what effect will this have on the
antenna's radiation pattern?
A. The radiation pattern will not be affected
B. A major lobe will develop in the horizontal plane,
away from the parasitic element, toward the dipole
C. A major lobe will develop in the vertical plane, away
from the ground
D. A major lobe will develop in the horizontal plane,
parallel to the two elements
G9C11 (C)
Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical
antenna system be placed?
A. As high as possible above the ground
B. Parallel to the antenna element
C. On the surface or buried a few inches below the ground
D. At the top of the antenna
G9D Popular antenna feed-lines - characteristic impedance
and impedance matching; SWR calculations
G9D01 (A)
Which of the following factors help determine the
characteristic impedance of a parallel-conductor antenna
feed-line?
A. The distance between the centers of the conductors and
the radius of the conductors
B. The distance between the centers of the conductors and
the length of the line
C. The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the
signal
D. The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
G9D02 (B)
What is the typical characteristic impedance of coaxial
cables used for antenna feed-lines at amateur stations?
A. 25 and 30 ohms
B. 50 and 75 ohms
C. 80 and 100 ohms
D. 500 and 750 ohms
G9D03 (D)
What is the characteristic impedance of flat-ribbon TV-type
twin-lead?
A. 50 ohms
B. 75 ohms
C. 100 ohms
D. 300 ohms
G9D04 (C)
What is the typical cause of power being reflected back
down an antenna feed-line?
A. Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
B. Using more transmitter power than the antenna can
handle
C. A difference between feed line impedance and antenna
feed-point impedance
D. Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed-line
G9D05 (D)
What must be done to prevent standing waves of voltage and
current on an antenna feed-line?
A. The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
B. The feed line must be cut to an odd number of
electrical quarter-wavelengths long
C. The feed line must be cut to an even number of
physical half wavelengths long
D. The antenna feed-point impedance must be matched to
the characteristic impedance of the feed-line
G9D06 (C)
Under what conditions would you use an inductively coupled
matching network with a dipole antenna fed with parallelconductor
feed line?
A. It would not normally be used with parallel-conductor
feed lines
B. It would be used to increase the SWR to an acceptable
level
C. It would be used to match the unbalanced transmitter
output to the balanced parallel-conductor feed line
D. It would be used at the antenna feed point to tune out
the radiation resistance
G9D07 (A)
If a 160-meter signal and a 2-meter signal pass through the
same coaxial cable, how will the attenuation of the two
signals compare?
A. It will be greater at 2 meters
B. It will be less at 2 meters
C. It will be the same at both frequencies
D. It will depend on the emission type in use
G9D08 (D)
In what values are RF feed line losses usually expressed?
A. Bels/1000 ft
B. dB/1000 ft
C. Bels/100 ft
D. dB/100 ft
G9D09 (A)
What standing-wave-ratio will result from the connection of
a 50-ohm feed line to a resonant antenna having a 200-ohm
feed-point impedance?
A. 4:1
B. 1:4
C. 2:1
D. 1:2
G9D10 (D)
What standing-wave-ratio will result from the connection of
a 50-ohm feed line to a resonant antenna having a 10-ohm
feed-point impedance?
A. 2:1
B. 50:1
C. 1:5
D. 5:1
G9D11 (B)
What standing-wave-ratio will result from the connection of
a 50-ohm feed line to a resonant antenna having a 50-ohm
feed-point impedance?
A. 2:1
B. 1:1
C. 50:50
D. 0:0
G9D12 (B)
What physical aspects of an air-insulated parallelconductor
transmission line determine its characteristic
impedance?
A. The RF resistance of the conductors and the length of
the conductors
B. The diameter of the conductors and the distance
between their centers
C. The RF resistance of the conductors and the dielectric
constant of the insulation
D. The resistance of each wire to RF ground and the
antenna's impedance
G9D13 (A)
What would be the SWR if you feed a vertical antenna that
has a 25-ohm feed-point impedance with 50-ohm coaxial
cable?
A. 2:1
B. 2.5:1
C. 1.25:1
D. You cannot determine SWR from impedance values
G9D14 (C)
What would be the SWR if you feed a folded dipole antenna
that has a 300-ohm feed-point impedance with 50-ohm coaxial
cable?
A. 1.5:1
B. 3:1
C. 6:1
D. You cannot determine SWR from impedance values
SUBELEMENT G0 -- RF SAFETY [5 Exam Questions -- 5 Groups]
G0A RF Safety Principles
G0A01 (A)
Depending on the wavelength of the signal, the energy
density of the RF field, and other factors, in what way can
RF energy affect body tissue?
A. It heats body tissue
B. It causes radiation poisoning
C. It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low
level
D. It cools body tissue
G0A02 (B)
Which property is NOT important in estimating RF energy's
effect on body tissue?
A. Its duty cycle
B. Its critical angle
C. Its power density
D. Its frequency
G0A03 (B)
Which of the following has the most direct effect on the
permitted exposure level of RF radiation?
A. The maximum usable frequency of the ionosphere
B. The frequency (or wavelength) of the energy
C. The environment near the transmitter
D. The distance from the antenna
G0A04 (C)
What unit of measurement best describes the biological
effects of RF fields at frequencies used by amateur
operators?
A. Electric field strength (V/m)
B. Magnetic field strength (A/m)
C. Specific absorption rate (W/kg)
D. Power density (W/cm2)
G0A05 (D)
RF radiation in which of the following frequency ranges has
the most effect on the human eyes?
A. The 3.5-MHz range
B. The 2-MHz range
C. The 50-MHz range
D. The 1270-MHz range
G0A06 (A)
What does the term "athermal effects" of RF radiation mean?
A. Biological effects from RF energy other than heating
B. Chemical effects from RF energy on minerals and
liquids
C. A change in the phase of a signal resulting from the
heating of an antenna
D. Biological effects from RF energy in excess of the
maximum permissible exposure level
G0A07 (B)
At what frequencies does the human body absorb RF energy at
a maximum rate?
A. The high-frequency (3-30-MHz) range
B. The very-high-frequency (30-300-MHz) range
C. The ultra-high-frequency (300-MHz to 3-GHz) range
D. The super-high-frequency (3-GHz to 30-GHz) range
G0A08 (D)
What does "time averaging" mean when it applies to RF
radiation exposure?
A. The average time of day when the exposure occurs
B. The average time it takes RF radiation to have any
long term effect on the body
C. The total time of the exposure, e.g. 6 minutes or 30
minutes
D. The total RF exposure averaged over a certain time
G0A09 (D)
What guideline is used to determine whether or not a
routine RF evaluation must be performed for an amateur
station?
A. If the transmitter's PEP is 50 watts or more, an
evaluation must always be performed
B. If the RF radiation from the antenna system falls
within a controlled environment, an evaluation must be
performed
C. If the RF radiation from the antenna system falls
within an uncontrolled environment, an evaluation must be
performed
D. If the transmitter's PEP and frequency are within
certain limits given in Part 97, an evaluation must be
performed
G0A10 (A)
If you perform a routine RF evaluation on your station and
determine that its RF fields exceed the FCC's exposure
limits in human-accessible areas, what are you required to
do?
A. Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive
RF fields
B. File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with
the FCC
C. Secure written permission from your neighbors to
operate above the controlled MPE limits
D. Nothing; simply keep the evaluation in your station
records
G0A11 (C)
At a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same
time, how is each transmitter included in the RF exposure
site evaluation?
A. Only the RF field of the most powerful transmitter
need be considered
B. The RF fields of all transmitters are multiplied
together
C. Transmitters that produce more than 5% of the maximum
permissible power density exposure limit for that
transmitter must be included
D. Only the RF fields from any transmitters operating
with high duty-cycle modes (greater than 50%) need to be
considered
G0A12 (D)
What factors can affect the thermal aspects of RF energy
exposure to human body tissues?
A. The body part and duration of its exposure
B. Frequency and power density
C. Wave polarization
D. All of these choices are correct
G0B RF Safety Rules and Guidelines
G0B01 (C)
What are the FCC's RF-safety rules designed to control?
A. The maximum RF radiated electric field strength
B. The maximum RF radiated magnetic field strength
C. The maximum permissible human exposure to all RF
radiated fields
D. The maximum RF radiated power density
G0B02 (A)
At a site with multiple transmitters, who must ensure that
all FCC RF-safety regulations are met?
A. All licensees contributing more than 5% of the maximum
permissible power density exposure for that transmitter are
equally responsible
B. Only the licensee of the station producing the
strongest RF field is responsible
C. All of the stations at the site are equally
responsible, regardless of any station's contribution to
the total RF field
D. Only the licensees of stations which are producing an
RF field exceeding the maximum permissible exposure limit
are responsible
G0B03 (A)
What effect does duty cycle have when evaluating RF
exposure?
A. Low duty-cycle emissions permit greater short-term
exposure levels
B. High duty-cycle emissions permit greater short-term
exposure levels
C. The duty cycle is not considered when evaluating RF
exposure
D. Any duty cycle may be used as long as it is less than
100 percent
G0B04 (B)
What is the threshold power used to determine if an RF
environmental evaluation is required when the operation
takes place in the 15-meter band?
A. 50 watts PEP
B. 100 watts PEP
C. 225 watts PEP
D. 500 watts PEP
G0B05 (B)
Why do the power levels used to determine if an RF
environmental evaluation is required vary with frequency?
A. Because amateur operators may use a variety of power
levels
B. Because Maximum Permissible Exposure (MPE) limits are
frequency dependent
C. Because provision must be made for signal loss due to
propagation
D. All of these choices are correct
G0B06 (A)
What is the threshold power used to determine if an RF
environmental evaluation is required when the operation
takes place in the 10-meter band?
A. 50 watts PEP
B. 100 watts PEP
C. 225 watts PEP
D. 500 watts PEP
G0B07 (D)
What is the threshold power used to determine if an RF
environmental evaluation is required for transmissions in
the amateur bands with frequencies less than 10 MHz?
A. 50 watts PEP
B. 100 watts PEP
C. 225 watts PEP
D. 500 watts PEP
G0B08 (D)
What amateur frequency bands have the lowest power limits
above which an RF environmental evaluation is required?
A. All bands between 17 and 30 meters
B. All bands between 10 and 15 meters
C. All bands between 40 and 160 meters
D. All bands between 1.25 and 10 meters
G0B09 (C)
What is the threshold power used to determine if an RF
safety evaluation is required when the operation takes
place in the 20-meter band?
A. 50 watts PEP
B. 100 watts PEP
C. 225 watts PEP
D. 500 watts PEP
G0B10 (D)
Which of the following amateur radio stations are subject
to routine environmental evaluation?
A. Those stations that use gain-type antennas at HF
frequencies
B. All except portable stations
C. All except those stations where no one is exposed to
RF radiation
D. Those stations with transmitter output levels
exceeding 500-watts PEP on the 40, 75/80 and 160 meter
bands
G0C Routine Station Evaluation and Measurements (FCC Part
97 refers to RF Radiation Evaluation)
G0C01 (C)
If the free-space far-field strength of a 10-MHz dipole
antenna measures 1.0 millivolts per meter at a distance of
5 wavelengths, what will the field strength measure at a
distance of 10 wavelengths?
A. 0.10 millivolts per meter
B. 0.25 millivolts per meter
C. 0.50 millivolts per meter
D. 1.0 millivolts per meter
G0C02 (B)
If the free-space far-field strength of a 28-MHz Yagi
antenna measures 4.0 millivolts per meter at a distance of
5 wavelengths, what will the field strength measure at a
distance of 20 wavelengths?
A. 2.0 millivolts per meter
B. 1.0 millivolts per meter
C. 0.50 millivolts per meter
D. 0.25 millivolts per meter
G0C03 (A)
If the free-space far-field strength of a 1.8-MHz dipole
antenna measures 9 microvolts per meter at a distance of 4
wavelengths, what will the field strength measure at a
distance of 12 wavelengths?
A. 3 microvolts per meter
B. 3.6 microvolts per meter
C. 4.8 microvolts per meter
D. 10 microvolts per meter
G0C04 (D)
If the free-space far-field power density of a 18-MHz Yagi
antenna measures 10 milliwatts per square meter at a
distance of 3 wavelengths, what will it measure at a
distance of 6 wavelengths?
A. 11 milliwatts per square meter
B. 5.0 milliwatts per square meter
C. 3.3 milliwatts per square meter
D. 2.5 milliwatts per square meter
G0C05 (B)
If the free-space far-field power density of an antenna
measures 9 milliwatts per square meter at a distance of 5
wavelengths, what will the field strength measure at a
distance of 15 wavelengths?
A. 3 milliwatts per square meter
B. 1 milliwatt per square meter
C. 0.9 milliwatt per square meter
D. 0.09 milliwatt per square meter
G0C06 (A)
What factors determine the location of the boundary between
the near and far fields of an antenna?
A. Wavelength of the signal and physical size of the
antenna
B. Antenna height and element material
C. Boom length and element material
D. Transmitter power and antenna gain
G0C07 (D)
Which of the following steps might an amateur operator take
to ensure compliance with the RF safety regulations?
A. Post a copy of FCC Part 97 in the station
B. Post a copy of OET Bulletin 65 in the station
C. Nothing; amateur compliance is voluntary
D. Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation
G0C08 (C)
In the free-space far field, what is the relationship
between the electric field (E field) and magnetic field (H
field)?
A. The electric field strength is equal to the square of
the magnetic field strength
B. The electric field strength is equal to the cube of
the magnetic field strength
C. The electric and magnetic field strength has a fixed
impedance relationship of 377 ohms
D. The electric field strength times the magnetic field
strength equals 377 ohms
G0C09 (B)
What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure
an RF field?
A. A receiver with an S meter
B. A calibrated field-strength meter with a calibrated
antenna
C. A betascope with a dummy antenna calibrated at 50 ohms
D. An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker
generator
G0C10 (C)
If your station complies with the RF safety rules and you
reduce its power output from 500 to 40 watts, how would the
RF safety rules apply to your operations?
A. You would need to reevaluate your station for
compliance with the RF safety rules because the power
output changed
B. You would need to reevaluate your station for
compliance with the RF safety rules because the
transmitting parameters changed
C. You would not need to perform an RF safety evaluation,
but your station would still need to be in compliance with
the RF safety rules
D. The RF safety rules would no longer apply to your
station because it would be operating with less than 50
watts of power
G0C11 (D)
If your station complies with the RF safety rules and you
reduce its power output from 1000 to 500 watts, how would
the RF safety rules apply to your operations?
A. You would need to reevaluate your station for
compliance with the RF safety rules because the power
output changed
B. You would need to reevaluate your station for
compliance with the RF safety rules because the
transmitting parameters changed
C. You would need to perform an RF safety evaluation to
ensure your station would still be in compliance with the
RF safety rules
D. Since your station was in compliance with RF safety
rules at a higher power output, you need to do nothing more
G0D Practical RF-safety applications
G0D01 (C)
Considering RF safety, what precaution should you take if
you install an indoor transmitting antenna?
A. Locate the antenna close to your operating position to
minimize feed line losses
B. Position the antenna along the edge of a wall where it
meets the floor or ceiling to reduce parasitic radiation
C. Locate the antenna as far away as possible from living
spaces that will be occupied while you are operating
D. Position the antenna parallel to electrical power
wires to take advantage of parasitic effects
G0D02 (A)
Considering RF safety, what precaution should you take
whenever you make adjustments to the feed line of a
directional antenna system?
A. Be sure no one can activate the transmitter
B. Disconnect the antenna-positioning mechanism
C. Point the antenna away from the sun so it doesn't
concentrate solar energy on you
D. Be sure you and the antenna structure are properly
grounded
G0D03 (A)
What is the best reason to place a protective fence around
the base of a ground-mounted transmitting antenna?
A. To reduce the possibility of persons being exposed to
levels of RF in excess of the maximum permissible exposure
(MPE) limits
B. To reduce the possibility of animals damaging the
antenna
C. To reduce the possibility of persons vandalizing
expensive equipment
D. To improve the antenna's grounding system and thereby
reduce the possibility of lightning damage
G0D04 (B)
What RF-safety precautions should you take before beginning
repairs on an antenna?
A. Be sure you and the antenna structure are grounded
B. Be sure to turn off the transmitter and disconnect the
feed-line
C. Inform your neighbors so they are aware of your
intentions
D. Turn off the main power switch in your house
G0D05 (D)
What precaution should be taken when installing a groundmounted
antenna?
A. It should not be installed higher than you can reach
B. It should not be installed in a wet area
C. It should be painted so people or animals do not
accidentally run into it
D. It should be installed so no one can be exposed to RF
radiation in excess of the maximum permissible exposure
(MPE) limits
G0D06 (B)
What precaution should you take before beginning repairs on
a microwave feed horn or waveguide?
A. Wear tight-fitting clothes and gloves to protect your
body and hands from sharp edges
B. Be sure the transmitter is turned off and the power
source is disconnected
C. Wait until the weather is dry and sunny
D. Be sure propagation conditions are not favorable for
troposphere ducting
G0D07 (D)
Why should directional high-gain antennas be mounted higher
than nearby structures?
A. To eliminate inversion of the major and minor lobes
B. So they will not damage nearby structures with RF
energy
C. So they will receive more sky waves and fewer ground
waves
D. So they will not direct excessive amounts of RF energy
toward people in nearby structures
G0D08 (C)
For best RF safety, where should the ends and center of a
dipole antenna be located?
A. Near or over moist ground so RF energy will be
radiated away from the ground
B. As close to the transmitter as possible so RF energy
will be concentrated near the transmitter
C. As far away as possible to minimize RF exposure to
people near the antenna
D. Close to the ground so simple adjustments can be
easily made without climbing a ladder
G0D09 (B)
What should you do to reduce RF radiation exposure when
operating at 1270 MHz?
A. Make sure that an RF leakage filter is installed at
the antenna feed point
B. Keep the antenna away from your eyes when RF is
applied
C. Make sure the standing wave ratio is low before you
conduct a test
D. Never use a shielded horizontally polarized antenna
G0D10 (A)
Considering RF safety, which of the following is the best
reason to mount the antenna of a mobile VHF transceiver in
the center of a metal roof?
A. The roof will greatly shield the driver and passengers
from RF radiation
B. The antenna will be out of the driver's line of sight
C. The center of a metal roof is the sturdiest mounting
place for an antenna
D. The wind resistance of the antenna will be centered
between the wheels and not drag on one side or the other
G0D11 (A)
Why should you avoid using attic-mounted antennas?
A. They may expose people in the house to strong, near
field RF energy
B. The attic may not have adequate thermal insulation for
the antenna
C. People moving around in the house might detune the
antenna
D. All of these choices are correct
G0D12 (D)
Why must you be careful when aiming EME (moonbounce) arrays
toward the horizon?
A. Their high ERP may produce hazardous RF fields in
uncontrolled areas
B. They could cause TVI/RFI for your neighbors
C. Reflections from nearby objects could detune the array
D. All of these choices are correct
G0E RF-safety solutions
G0E01 (B)
If you receive minor burns every time you touch your
microphone while you are transmitting, which of the
following statements is true?
A. You need to use a low-impedance microphone
B. You and others in your station may be exposed to more
than the maximum permissible level of RF radiation
C. You need to use a surge suppressor on your station
transmitter
D. All of these choices are correct
G0E02 (D)
If measurements indicate that individuals in your station
are exposed to more than the maximum permissible level of
radiation, which of the following corrective measures would
be effective?
A. Ensure proper grounding of the equipment
B. Ensure that all equipment covers are tightly fastened
C. Use the minimum amount of transmitting power necessary
D. All of these choices are correct
G0E03 (B)
If calculations show that you and your family may be
receiving more than the maximum permissible RF radiation
exposure from your 20-meter indoor dipole, which of the
following steps might be appropriate?
A. Use RTTY instead of CW or SSB voice emissions
B. Move the antenna to a safe outdoor environment
C. Use an antenna-matching network to reduce your
transmitted SWR
D. All of these choices are correct
G0E04 (D)
Considering RF exposure, which of the following steps
should you take when installing an antenna?
A. Install the antenna as high and far away from
populated areas as possible
B. If the antenna is a gain antenna, point it away from
populated areas
C. Minimize feed line radiation into populated areas
D. All of these choices are correct
G0E05 (D)
What might you do if an RF radiation evaluation shows that
your neighbors may be receiving more than the maximum RF
radiation exposure limit from your Yagi antenna when it is
pointed at their house?
A. Change from horizontal polarization to vertical
polarization
B. Change from horizontal polarization to circular
polarization
C. Use an antenna with a higher front to rear ratio
D. Take precautions to ensure you can't point your
antenna at their house
G0E06 (A)
What might you do if an RF radiation evaluation shows that
your neighbors may be receiving more than the maximum RF
radiation exposure limit from your quad antenna when it is
pointed at their house?
A. Reduce your transmitter power to a level that reduces
their exposure to a value below the maximum permissible
exposure (MPE) limit
B. Change from horizontal polarization to vertical
polarization
C. Use an antenna with a higher front to side ratio
D. Use an antenna with a sharper radiation lobe
G0E07 (C)
Why does a dummy antenna provide an RF safe environment for
transmitter adjusting?
A. The dummy antenna carries the RF energy far away from
the station before releasing it
B. The RF energy is contained in a halo around the
outside of the dummy antenna
C. The RF energy is not radiated from a dummy antenna,
but is converted to heat
D. The dummy antenna provides a perfect match to the
antenna feed impedance
G0E08 (A)
From an RF radiation exposure point of view, which of the
following materials would be the best to use for your
homemade transmatch enclosure?
A. Aluminum
B. Bakelite
C. Transparent acrylic plastic
D. Any nonconductive material
G0E09 (B)
From an RF radiation exposure point of view, what is the
advantage to using a high-gain, narrow-beamwidth antenna
for your VHF station?
A. High-gain antennas absorb stray radiation
B. The RF radiation can be focused in a direction away
from populated areas
C. Narrow-beamwidth antennas eliminate exposure in areas
directly under the antenna
D. All of these choices are correct
G0E10 (C)
From an RF radiation exposure point of view, what is the
disadvantage in using a high-gain, narrow-beamwidth antenna
for your VHF station?
A. High-gain antennas must be fed with coaxial cable
feed-line, which radiates stray RF energy
B. The RF radiation can be better focused in a direction
away from populated areas
C. Individuals in the main beam of the radiation pattern
will receive a greater exposure than when a low-gain
antenna is used
D. All of these choices are correct
G0E11 (C)
If your station is located in a residential area, which of
the following would best help you reduce the RF exposure to
your neighbors from your amateur station?
A. Use RTTY instead of CW or SSB voice emissions
B. Use top-quality coaxial cable to reduce RF losses in
the feed-line
C. Install your antenna as high as possible to maximize
the distance to nearby people
D. Use an antenna matching network to reduce your
transmitted SWR
G0E12 (A)
What could be done to ensure greater RF safety near a
ground mounted vertical antenna?
A. Construct fencing to exclude people from getting too
close to the antenna
B. Avoid transmitter output power levels above 50-watts
C. Increase the gain of the antenna
D. Add a parasitic element to redirect RF energy away
from uncontrolled area
